Daily Quiz

Ans: c) Fujiwhara effect

Explanation: The Fujiwhara effect describes the interactions between tropical storms that form within a specified distance from each other in the same ocean region, influencing their tracks and intensities.

Ans: b) Rossby waves

Explanation: Twin cyclones originate from the interaction of wind systems, monsoon patterns, and Earth’s dynamics through the formation of equatorial Rossby waves, which are massive ocean waves with long wavelengths that can span thousands of kilometers.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Albedo represents the portion of incoming sunlight that gets reflected. If an object reflects a significant amount of the light it receives and appears bright, it possesses a high albedo. Mercury has an albedo of 0.1, whereas Earth’s albedo is 0.30.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Albedo represents the portion of incoming sunlight that gets reflected. If an object reflects a significant amount of the light it receives and appears bright, it possesses a high albedo. Mercury has an albedo of 0.1, whereas Earth’s albedo is 0.30.

Ans. b

Explanation:

According to ecosystem, the maximum albedo would be of Tundra, then Taiga, then Tropical Deciduous then Tropical ever green.

Explanation:

Radio waves, the electromagnetic spectrum’s longest wavelengths, vary from the size of a football to exceeding the dimensions of our planet. Within the ionosphere, an abundance of free electrons exists. When High Frequency (HF) radio waves, possessing frequencies below the ionosphere’s critical frequency, encounter these free electrons, they prompt electron vibrations. Consequently, these vibrating electrons emit the energy back down at the same frequency.

Therefore, it’s not solely the length of the wavelength or its shortness that holds significance. Instead, the wavelength, which is inversely tied to the frequency of the wave, must fall within an appropriate range for the waves to undergo reflection by the ionosphere.

Ans. c
Explanation:
The Earth’s rotation leads to the deflection of winds towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere.

Ans. a

Explanation:

A holds true because wind direction in the Northern Hemisphere follows a clockwise pattern, whereas in the Southern Hemisphere, it adopts an anticlockwise direction. The reasoning is accurate as this phenomenon is primarily attributed to the Coriolis effect.

Ans. a

Explanation:

The moisture content in the atmosphere correlates with the latitude due to the dependency of temperature on the latitude, which, in turn, influences the atmosphere’s capacity to retain moisture.

Ans. b

Explanation:

Intense solar radiation and vigorous convection currents cause air to expand significantly at the equator, leading to the greatest thickness of the atmosphere being found over this region.

Answer: (b) 1,3 , and 4 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) of the World Health Organisation (WHO) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans, placing it in the third category among the four levels of carcinogens.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Aspartame contains two amino acids – L-aspartic acid and L-phenylalanine, not L-glutamic acid.
• Statement 3 is correct.Aspartame was discovered by James M Schlatter in 1965.
• Statement 4 is correct. The acceptable daily intake (ADI) for aspartame set by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is 50 milligrams per kilogram of body weight per day.

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Cholederm is derived from the extracellular matrix of decellularised gall bladder of a pig.
• Statement 2 is correct. It is classified as a Class D Biomedical Device material.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.Cholederm is the first indigenously developed product to meet all statutory requirements of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), not an imported one.
• Statement 4 is correct. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology (SCTIMST), an autonomous institution under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), developed Cholederm.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Curiosity Rover is a part of NASA’s Mars Science Laboratory (MSL) mission.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Curiosity Rover was launched in the year 2012.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. It is the largest and most capable rover ever sent to Mars.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Himalayan brown bear is the largest mammal found in Kashmir, but It is considerably smaller than the Grizzly and the Kodiak bears.
• Statement 2 is correct. The passage specifies the distribution of the Himalayan brown bear across regions in northern Afghanistan, northern Pakistan, northern India, western China, and Nepal.

Ans. a

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Status of the Himalayan brown bear is Critically Endangered.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Himalayan brown bear is the least arboreal bear and is primarily terrestrial, adapted to life in rolling uplands above the tree line.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The closure of old trade routes due to various conquests and geopolitical changes.

Statement 2 is incorrect; it was Vasco da Gama, not Christopher Columbus, who discovered the sea route to India in 1498.

Statement 3 is correct; the Portuguese were indeed the first Europeans to establish trade posts in India.

Answer B (1^ST STATEMENT IS INCORRECT)

Rivers in Peninsular Plateau

• The Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Narmada, and Tapti or Tapi rivers are among India’s peninsular rivers.
• They collectively drain a sizable section of rural India. In the life of Indians, these rivers have religious and cultural importance.
• The Kaveri Riveris another name for the Cauvery River. It is one of the Hindu rivers that are considered sacred.
• The river’s headwaters are in theWestern Ghats Mountain Range, in Talakaveri in Karnataka’s Kodagu District. The river flows from the south Deccan hills to the southeast lowlands.
• TheGodavari is South India’s longest and largest river. The Dakshina Ganga is another name for it.
• The Godavari is India’s second-longest river, behind the Ganga.
• The river originates in the Maharashtra district of Nashik. The river empties out into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Mahanadi Riveris a significant river in Eastern India. The river runs about 900 kilometres.

Answer B (2^ND STATEMENT IS INCORRECT)

Metamorphic Rocks

• The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’.
• Metamorphism is a process by which recrystallisation and reorganisationof minerals occur within a rock. This occurs due to pressure, volume and temperature changes.
• When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks, metamorphosis occurs.
• In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement is called foliation or lineation.
• Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick layers. Such a structure in is called banding.
• Gneissoid, slate, schist, marble, quartzite are some examples of metamorphic rocks.

Causes of Metamorphism

• Orogenic (Mountain Building) Movements:Such movements often take place with an interplay of folding, warping and high temperatures. These processes give existing rocks a new appearance.
• Lava Inflow:The molten magmatic material inside the earth’s crust brings the surrounding rocks under the influence of intense temperature pressure and causes changes in them.
• Geodynamic Forces:The omnipresent geodynamic forces such as plate tectonics also play an important role in metamorphism.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Curiosity Rover is a part of NASA’s Mars Science Laboratory (MSL) mission.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Curiosity Rover was launched in the year 2012.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. It is the largest and most capable rover ever sent to Mars.

Answer:

(d) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Washington Declaration, commemorating the 70th anniversary of U.S.-South Korea bilateral relations, focuses on advocating a nuclear deterrence policy in the region, aiming to balance power dynamics against North Korea.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The declaration specifies that an American nuclear ballistic submarine would be deployed in the Korean peninsula, not a South Korean one, to strengthen the nuclear deterrence capabilities.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The declaration reaffirmed South Korea’s commitment to refrain from creating its independent nuclear capabilities, relying instead on the reinforcement of its deterrence capabilities by the United States.

Answer C

Governor’s Assent Requirement:

• The Governor’s assent is necessary for bills passed by the State legislature to become law.

2. Sending for Reconsideration:

• The Governor can send a bill back to the House for reconsideration.
• If the House returns the bill without any change, the Governor must give assent.
• Exception: The Governor cannot send a Money Bill back to the State Legislature.

3. Reserving for President’s Consideration:

• The Governor has the right to reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.
• If a bill is reserved for the President, the Governor is no longer involved in the enactment process.
• Even if the President refers the bill back for reconsideration, it goes directly to the President, not the Governor.

4. Withholding Assent:

• The Governor has the power to withhold assent to a bill.

5. Pending Bill in the Legislature:

• If any bill is pending in the House(s), the Governor can send a reminder message to those House(s) about the pending bill.

Answer. B

• The Western Ghats hold the record for hosting the greatest quantity of native bird species unique to India.
• The IUCN Red List classifies the Manipur Bush Quail as an ‘Endangered’ species.
• Roughly 12.40% of the world’s bird diversity is found within the borders of India.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. rustica, is limited to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries. It is not extensively cultivated across various countries worldwide.
• Statement 2 is correct.Gujarat as the top producer of N. tabacum in India, having the highest production and productivity.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Ram Prasad Bismil was indeed born on June 11, 1897, in Shahjahanpur district, United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh).

Statement 2: Harivansh Rai Bachchan, is renowned for his composition “Azadi Ka Geet” (Song of Freedom), which has been translated into numerous languages. This poem encapsulates the sentiments of India, signifying the nation’s attainment of independence and its optimistic aspirations for a promising future. However, the Bismil wrote the poem “Mainpuri ki Pratigya” in 1918, not “Azadi Ka Geet.” Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: Bismil did start a revolutionary organization called “Matrivedi” (The Altar of the Motherland) and collaborated with Genda Lal Dixit.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The French power in India faced a decline between 1706 and 1720, resulting in the reconstitution of the French East India Company in 1720 to revive their influence.

Statement 2 is correct. Dupleix’s appointment as the French governor in India in 1742 initiated the Anglo-French conflicts, which are commonly known as the Carnatic wars.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Factors Influencing Temperature Variations:

1. Location in Relation to the Sea

• Influence on Temperature: A location’s proximity to the sea significantly impacts its temperature. Compared to land, the sea undergoes a slower heating and cooling process, resulting in less temperature variation. Areas near the sea benefit from the moderating effects of sea and land breezes, which help regulate temperature fluctuations.

2. Effects of Air Masses

• Impact on Temperature: Temperature is also influenced by the movement of air masses. Areas affected by warm air masses typically experience higher temperatures, whereas those affected by cold air masses record lower temperatures. Similarly, coastal regions influenced by warm ocean currents exhibit higher temperatures than areas influenced by colder ocean currents along the coastlines.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Winds with Distinct Characteristics:

1. Mistral

• Description: Mistral, a cold and dry powerful wind in southern France, blows from the north along the lower Rhône River valley towards the Mediterranean Sea. It sustains for extended periods, averaging approximately 74 km/h (45 miles/h), primarily prevalent and most forceful in winter, sometimes leading to significant crop damage.

2. Pampero

• Description: Pampero, a cold and dry wind occurring in the Pampas region (Argentina) during winter, results from a burst of cold polar air sweeping westward, southwestward, or southward over the pampas across South American countries like Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay, and Bolivia. Associated with a passing cold front of an active low, it intensifies into a squall line, causing a noticeable temperature drop. In Buenos Aires, these storms during summers serve as a welcomed relief from high humidity and extreme heat.

3. Simoon

• Description: Simoon, a scorching, arid, suffocating, and dust-laden wind, ravages African deserts, notably impacting regions like Arabia, Syria, and neighboring countries. Generated by extreme desert heat, it carries dust and sand, reshaping deserts and sand dunes during late Spring and Summer. Despite its brevity, lasting around 20 minutes, it can result in whirlwinds, predominantly due to low-level thermic heating, significantly impacting desert landscapes.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Cumulonimbus Cloud Characteristics:

1. Cloud Structure and Height

• Description: Cumulonimbus clouds stretch extensively upwards in towers or plumes, commonly recognized as thunderclouds due to their unique ability to generate hail, thunder, and lightning.

2. Distinctive Features

• Appearance: These clouds typically exhibit a flat base, accompanied by a dark, wall-shaped structure hanging beneath. The cloud base might be positioned just a few hundred feet above the Earth’s surface.

3. Formation and Convection

• Origin and Development: Cumulonimbus clouds originate from convection processes. They can also form along cold fronts, specifically due to forced convection, where warmer air is compelled to ascend over incoming cold air masses.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Tropical Cyclones: Characteristics and Factors

1. Nature and Impact

• Description: Violent storms originating over tropical oceans, causing significant devastation upon reaching coastal areas due to fierce winds, intense rainfall, and storm surges.

2. Wind Movements in Tropical Cyclones

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Wind patterns within tropical cyclones run counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere, attributed to the Coriolis Force.

3. Conditions Favorable for Formation

• Statement 2 (Correct): Favorable conditions for tropical cyclone genesis include expansive warm sea surfaces with temperatures surpassing 27°C, sufficient Coriolis force to generate a cyclonic vortex, minimal fluctuations in vertical wind speed, presence of a pre-existing weak low-pressure zone, and upper-level divergence over the sea.

4. Characteristics of the ‘Eye’

• Statement 3 (Correct): The ‘eye’ represents a circular region within a severe tropical cyclone, characterized by relatively calm winds and fair weather. It typically lacks precipitation and occasionally displays clear skies or star visibility. The eye denotes the area with the lowest surface pressure and highest temperatures at upper levels.

Answer D

Current Account Deficit (CAD):

• Definition: The current account deficit (CAD) occurs when the value of a country’s imports of goods and services is greater than its exports.
• Significance: CAD, when combined with fiscal deficit, forms twin deficits that can impact the stock market and investors.

2. Fiscal Deficit:

• Definition: Fiscal deficit is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts. It represents the money the government needs to borrow during the year.

3. Implications of CAD:

• Economic Impact: CAD significantly affects the economy, stock markets, and people’s investments.
• Investor Sentiment: A lower CAD can boost investor sentiment and make the country’s currency more attractive to investors.
• Surplus in Current Account: A surplus in the current account indicates money flowing into the country, boosting foreign exchange reserves and the local currency’s value.

4. Recent Status of India’s CAD:

• CAD in 2022-23: The CAD for the first half of 2022-23 was 3.3% of GDP. However, the situation improved in Quarter 3:2022-23 due to lower commodity prices and moderated imports.

5. Negative Effects of CAD on Economy:

• Weaker Currency: When a country’s imports exceed exports, it can lead to a weaker currency value (depreciation), affecting demand for the currency.
• Inflation Impact: Weaker currency makes imports more expensive, contributing to higher inflation and a reduction in purchasing power.
• Debt Accumulation: Inability to finance CAD with foreign investment may lead to borrowing, increasing debt levels and potentially harming the economy.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Factors Influencing Temperature Variations:

1. Location in Relation to the Sea

• Influence on Temperature: A location’s proximity to the sea significantly impacts its temperature. Compared to land, the sea undergoes a slower heating and cooling process, resulting in less temperature variation. Areas near the sea benefit from the moderating effects of sea and land breezes, which help regulate temperature fluctuations.

2. Effects of Air Masses

• Impact on Temperature: Temperature is also influenced by the movement of air masses. Areas affected by warm air masses typically experience higher temperatures, whereas those affected by cold air masses record lower temperatures. Similarly, coastal regions influenced by warm ocean currents exhibit higher temperatures than areas influenced by colder ocean currents along the coastlines.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Temperature Variations in Ocean Depths:

1. Rate of Temperature Decline

• Equatorial versus Polar Regions: Near the equator, the temperature decreases more swiftly with increasing depths compared to the poles. While surface temperatures decline from the equator towards the poles, the temperature at ocean depths remains consistent across this latitudinal range. This discrepancy indicates a more rapid temperature drop with depth near the equator than towards the poles.

2. Temperature Distribution in Oceans

• Surface Temperature Dynamics: The oceans consistently exhibit their highest temperatures at their surfaces. This phenomenon arises due to direct solar heating, wherein the sun’s heat is received at the ocean surface and subsequently transferred downward through the process of convection to lower sections of the oceans.

Ans. b: Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

Reasons for the Absence of Cyclone Formation in the South Atlantic:

1. Sea Surface Temperatures

• Slightly Cooler Conditions: The sea surface temperatures in the South Atlantic tend to be cooler, falling slightly below the optimal threshold required for the formation of tropical cyclones.

2. Influence of Vertical Wind Shear

• Consistently High Wind Shear: Throughout the year, the South Atlantic experiences notably high vertical wind shear levels. This condition persists even during summer, posing a barrier to cyclone development.

3. Lack of Vorticity and Pre-existing Rotational Centers

• Insufficient Vorticity: The absence of pre-existing rotation centers within the area contributes to the challenge of cyclone genesis. The region typically lacks the necessary vorticity for cyclone formation.

4. Factors Relating to Tropical Waves and ITCZ

• Absence of Tropical Waves: The area lacks the presence of tropical waves, which are vital elements for cyclone initiation.
• Position of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): The ITCZ, shifting with the seasons, typically remains near or north of the equator during the South Atlantic’s summer. This positioning denies the region the critical convergence zone required for cyclone formation.

5. Effect of Strong Wind Shear and ITCZ Position

• Impact of Wind Shear: The South Atlantic experiences strong wind shear in the tropospheric layers, hampering the generation of tropical cyclones.
• ITCZ Positioning Impact: The ITCZ largely remains near the equator, lacking a southward shift over the South Atlantic or South Pacific regions. This absence denies these areas the crucial ITCZ influence, contributing significantly to the lack of cyclones.

6. Additional Factors: Lower Sea Temperatures

• Cooler Sea Temperatures: Lower sea temperatures in these regions further contribute to the lack of conducive conditions for cyclone development.

Important Insight:

• Cyclone Characteristics: Cyclones typically manifest as large wind systems revolving counterclockwise north of the Equator and clockwise to the south.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Jet Streams

• Existence in Both Hemispheres: Jet streams are high-speed air currents present in the upper troposphere. Contrary to Statement 1, they occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, displaying their influence on global atmospheric circulation.
• Swift and Narrow Belts: These streams manifest as relatively narrow bands of rapid winds, with velocities ranging from 100 km/hr to 900 km/hr. Their narrowness and high speeds distinguish them within the upper troposphere.
• Curved Paths Due to Effects: Their paths follow curved and meandering trajectories primarily because of the Coriolis effect. Additionally, the conservation of angular momentum within large-scale atmospheric systems contributes to their meandering nature.
• Strength of Jet Streams: Jet streams exhibit formidable strength, representing some of the strongest winds in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Tropical Cyclone Formation Conditions

• Warm Sea Surface Temperature: Formation of tropical cyclones necessitates large expanses of warm sea surfaces, typically exceeding 27°C in temperature. These warmer temperatures provide the energy source for their development.
• Coriolis Force and Cyclonic Vortex: The presence of a sufficient Coriolis force is crucial for the creation of a cyclonic vortex, an essential component for tropical cyclone formation.
• Vertical Wind Speed Stability: Minimal fluctuations in the vertical wind speed are necessary to sustain the development of these cyclonic systems.
• Pre-existing Atmospheric Conditions: Prevalence of a weak low-pressure area or a low-level cyclonic circulation acts as a precursor for the formation of tropical cyclones.
• Upper-Level Conditions: A crucial condition involves upper-level divergence above the sea-level system, aiding in sustaining and intensifying the cyclonic formation.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Magnetic Reversals in Earth’s History

1. Historical Reversal Frequency: Experts estimate that magnetic reversals have occurred numerous times within the past three billion years. This recurrence signifies the substantial frequency of these reversals over an extensive period.
2. Recent Reversal Patterns: Over the span of the last 20 million years, the magnetic poles, both north and south, have undergone reversals approximately every 200,000 to 300,000 years. This periodicity indicates a consistent pattern in the recent history of magnetic field fluctuations.
3. Last Major Reversal: The most recent significant magnetic reversal occurred roughly 780,000 years ago, marking a substantial shift in the Earth’s magnetic field during that period.

Composition of Early Atmosphere

1. Early Atmospheric Components: Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years ago, known as the Archaean and Proterozoic eras, the initial secondary atmosphere consisted of carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapor (H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen (N) in limited quantities, and hydrogen (H). This composition highlights the presence of carbon dioxide within the early atmospheric makeup.
2. Influence of Living Organisms: When life first emerged, it had negligible impact on the composition of the early atmosphere. Contrary to a specific statement, the initial organisms did not significantly alter the composition of the early atmospheric gases. However, according to the official answer key, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only, indicating that the emergence of life did not contribute substantially to altering the early atmosphere.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Annual Temperature Range Variations:

1. Definition of Annual Range

• Description: The annual range represents the difference between the warmest and coldest months, determined by averaging monthly temperatures.
• Statement 1 (Correct): Maximum annual range is observed notably across the vast interiors of continents in the Northern Hemisphere, prominently evident over regions like the Siberian Plains.
  • Continentality Effect: Land heats and cools rapidly compared to water due to differences in specific heat capacity. This leads to substantial temperature variations across seasons, notably pronounced over landmasses compared to oceans.
  • Northern Hemisphere Dynamics: With more landmass, the Northern Hemisphere interior (like the Siberian Plains) exhibits the most significant annual temperature range due to these variations, whereas the Northern Atlantic, influenced by warm ocean currents, shows a narrower range due to moderated temperatures.

2. Lowest Annual Range near the Equator

• Statement 2 (Correct): Regions within a narrow equatorial belt (approximately between 20 degrees South and 15 degrees North) experience the smallest annual temperature range, averaging around 3 degrees Celsius.
  • Equatorial Conditions: Proximity to the Equator results in nearly uniform insolation and consistent weather throughout the year, leading to minimal fluctuations in temperature. Consequently, these areas lack extremes of both hot and cold, hence exhibiting very low annual temperature ranges.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Air Pressure Dynamics:

• When heated, air expands, and when cooled, it contracts, leading to fluctuations in atmospheric pressure. These pressure variances prompt the movement of air from areas of high pressure to those of low pressure, initiating air circulation. Moreover, atmospheric pressure plays a critical role in determining whether air will ascend or descend.

Statement 1: Incorrect

• Contrary to the statement, within the lower atmosphere, pressure actually decreases rapidly rather than increases with height. However, this decline in pressure isn’t consistent due to the variability of factors influencing air density, such as temperature, moisture content, and gravitational effects. Consequently, establishing a straightforward relationship between altitude and pressure becomes challenging.

Statements 2 and 3: correct

• Atmospheric pressure isn’t consistent across all locations. The Earth’s surface experiences diverse pressure changes due to uneven surface heating. Analyzing the horizontal pressure variations involves plotting lines, known as isobars, connecting areas sharing identical pressure values on maps. Isobars represent the horizontal distribution of pressure at consistent levels. To standardize pressure measurements for comparison, adjustments are made by calculating pressure at different stations and reducing it to sea level to neutralize altitude-based effects.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:
PM Janjati Adivasi Nyaya MahaAbhiyan aims to ensure holistic development of tribal groups. It is meant to ensure last-mile welfare scheme delivery and protection for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). The scheme aims to benefit and saturate the families and habitations with basic facilities. It is a 24,000-crore project for vulnerable tribal groups. It was launched by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on the occasion of Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas (Tribal Pride Day). Modi also launched the Visksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra, a nationwide programme to reach out to all villages and include those eligible for various central schemes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Ans. a

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Status of the Himalayan brown bear is Critically Endangered.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Himalayan brown bear is the least arboreal bear and is primarily terrestrial, adapted to life in rolling uplands above the tree line.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect:In 2009, the UPSC established criteria for selecting State DGPs, following the Supreme Court’s directives on police reforms in the case of Prakash Singh vs Union of India. Recently, the UPSC modified the guidelines for appointing State Director Generals of Police (DGPs). The revised rule states that solely police officers with a minimum of six months remaining in service before retirement will be eligible for consideration in the appointment as DGPs.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Characteristics of Hot Deserts:

1. Global Distribution and Positioning

• Desert Coverage: Deserts encompass over one-fifth of the Earth’s landmass, spanning every continent.
• Hot Desert Locations: Hot deserts primarily reside around the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, typically between 15° and 30° north or south of the equator.
• Association with Atmospheric Conditions: These deserts align with the Horse Latitudes or Sub-Tropical High-Pressure Belts, where descending air impedes precipitation.

2. Influence of Air Movement and Relative Humidity

• Wind Patterns: Rain-bearing Trade Winds diverge away from deserts, while the on-shore Westerlies stay outside desert limits. The arriving winds, cooler and with reduced humidity, discourage condensation.
• Minimal Cloud and Low Humidity: The skies over deserts remain predominantly clear, with relative humidity plummeting from 60% in coastal regions to less than 30% in desert interiors. This arid environment facilitates constant evaporation, establishing a perpetual state of drought.

3. Rare Precipitation and Local Effects

• Scarce Rainfall: Desert regions experience unreliable and minimal precipitation.
• Effect of Cold Currents: Cold currents along western coasts generate mists and fogs, but as they interact with the warm land, little rainfall occurs. Notably, the Atacama or Peruvian Desert epitomizes extreme aridity with an annual rainfall of fewer than 1.3 cm.

4. Reasons for Tropics Association

• Hadley Cell Explanation: Deserts align with the Tropics due to the Hadley Cell’s atmospheric process, where ascending warm air at the equator leads to heavy rainfall, followed by descending, dry air with elevated temperatures in the tropics.

5. Examples of Major Hot Deserts

• Desert Examples: Notable hot deserts include the expansive Sahara Desert stretching 3,200 miles east to west and approximately 1,000 miles wide. Other significant hot deserts encompass the Great Australian Desert, Arabian Desert, Iranian Desert, Thar Desert, Kalahari Desert, Namib Desert, and various deserts in North and South America, each with unique characteristics and names based on their geographical regions.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Distinctions Between Fogs and Mists:

1. Clarification on Fogs and Mists Moisture Content

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Contrary to the statement, fogs are not drier than mists. Both fogs and mists, which are ground-level clouds, form when water condenses around particles in a substantial mass of air close to the Earth’s surface. However, mist typically contains higher moisture content. This occurs because each nucleus in mist retains a thicker layer of moisture around it compared to fog.

2. Formation and Circumstances

• Statement 2 (Incorrect): Fogs primarily occur when warm air currents intersect with colder currents. In contrast, mists usually form in mountainous areas where ascending warm air encounters a cold surface.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Atmospheric Layers and Characteristics:

1. Troposphere – Dominant Atmospheric Layer

• Description: Closest layer to the planet, comprising approximately 80% of the total atmospheric mass.
• Temperature and Water Vapor: Temperature and water vapor content decrease swiftly with altitude.
• Water Vapor Concentration: Contains 99% of the atmospheric water vapor, varying across latitudes. Concentration peaks in tropical regions (up to 3%) and diminishes towards the poles.

2. Mesosphere – Cooling Layer with Coldest Temperatures

• Location: Extends from around 30 to 50 miles (50 to 85 km) above the Earth’s surface.
• Temperature Variation: Features decreasing temperatures; the mesopause, its upper boundary, hosts the coldest temperatures in Earth’s atmosphere, especially evident in summer near the pole.

3. Exosphere – Outermost Atmospheric Region

• Position: Situated as the furthest atmospheric region from Earth’s surface.
• Escape Probability: Molecules in the exosphere may escape into space if moving fast enough or be drawn back to Earth by gravity if not, with minimal chances of collision.
• Boundary and Transition: Lower boundary, known as the thermopause or exobase, fluctuates from approximately 150 to 300 miles (250-500 km) based on solar activity. Represents a transitional zone between Earth’s atmosphere and interplanetary space.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Public Safety Act (PSA), 1978 is also called as The Jammu And Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978. The act extents only to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a preventive detention law where a person can be held under preventive detention up to two years. It is very similar to the National Security Act that is used by other state governments for preventive detention. A person can be detained for the following reasons:
– Threat to the maintenance of the public order to the state.
– Smuggling or abetting the smuggling of liquor.
– Engaging in transporting or concealing or keeping smuggled liquor.
When a person is detained under the PSA, the District Magistrate or Divisional Commissioners communicates the reason for the detention in writing, within 5 days. In exceptional circumstances, the DM can take 10 days to communicate these grounds. Article 22(a) of the Constitution states that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Himalayan brown bear is the largest mammal found in Kashmir, but It is considerably smaller than the Grizzly and the Kodiak bears.
• Statement 2 is correct. The passage specifies the distribution of the Himalayan brown bear across regions in northern Afghanistan, northern Pakistan, northern India, western China, and Nepal.

Ans. b

Explanation:

The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC):

1. Characteristics of AMOC

• Nature of Circulation: AMOC is a part of the broader global ocean conveyor belt, known as Thermo-Haline Circulation (THC), influencing the movement of ocean water due to variations in density caused by temperature and salinity differences. Within the Atlantic Ocean, it encompasses various currents such as the warm Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Drift, and the frigid Southern Ocean current.
• Flow of Warm and Cold Water: AMOC transports warm surface waters from tropical regions toward the Northern Hemisphere, where they cool and sink. Subsequently, this cooled water returns to the tropics and then to the South Atlantic as a lower-level current. From there, it disseminates across all ocean basins via the Antarctic circumpolar current.

2. Correction and Validation of Statements:

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Contrary to the statement, AMOC, a crucial segment of the global ocean conveyor belt, works to sustain warmer conditions in mid to high latitudes along the eastern coast of America and Western Europe by transporting warm surface waters via the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift.
• Statement 2 (Correct): According to IPCC’s Assessment Report 6 (AR6) and recent articles in Nature Climate Change, human-induced climate change is causing an unprecedented slowdown of the AMOC, attributable to the accelerated melting of Arctic ice shelves, notably in “The Last Ice Area.” This influx of freshwater diminishes water salinity and density, hindering the typical sinking of water and subsequently weakening the AMOC flow.

3. Predicted Implications of AMOC Weakening:

• Projected Consequences: Anticipated impacts of AMOC slowdown include:
  1. Substantially cooler climates in North America and Western Europe.
  2. Reduced rainfall in Europe due to the significant southward migration of rain belts over the tropical Atlantic.
  3. Diminished nutrient transport in the Atlantic Ocean basin, impacting fishing areas like Newfoundland.
  4. Possible influence on El Niño patterns.
  5. Increased sea ice formation over the Greenland-Iceland-Norwegian seas and the southern vicinity of Greenland.

Ans. c

Explanation:

The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ):

1. Geographical Position and Nature

• Geographical Range: Extending approximately five degrees north and south of the equator, the ITCZ forms a broad belt encircling the Earth.
• Pressure Characteristics: It represents a wide trough of low pressure situated in equatorial latitudes, where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge.

2. ITCZ Movement and Seasonal Impact

• Movement in Relation to the Equator: ITCZ generally aligns parallel to the equator but shifts its position northward or southward following the apparent movement of the sun.
• Seasonal Influence on Rainfall: Shifts in the ITCZ significantly impact rainfall patterns in equatorial regions, leading to distinct wet and dry seasons characteristic of the tropics, different from the cold and warm seasons found in higher latitudes.

3. Comparison of ITCZ Shifts between Hemispheres

• Northern vs. Southern Hemisphere Shifts: The movement of the ITCZ exhibits a lesser shift in the Southern Hemisphere compared to the Northern Hemisphere. This is primarily due to the more continental nature of the Northern Hemisphere, resulting in a sharper temperature gradient.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Winds with Distinct Characteristics:

1. Mistral

• Description: Mistral, a cold and dry powerful wind in southern France, blows from the north along the lower Rhône River valley towards the Mediterranean Sea. It sustains for extended periods, averaging approximately 74 km/h (45 miles/h), primarily prevalent and most forceful in winter, sometimes leading to significant crop damage.

2. Pampero

• Description: Pampero, a cold and dry wind occurring in the Pampas region (Argentina) during winter, results from a burst of cold polar air sweeping westward, southwestward, or southward over the pampas across South American countries like Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay, and Bolivia. Associated with a passing cold front of an active low, it intensifies into a squall line, causing a noticeable temperature drop. In Buenos Aires, these storms during summers serve as a welcomed relief from high humidity and extreme heat.

3. Simoon

• Description: Simoon, a scorching, arid, suffocating, and dust-laden wind, ravages African deserts, notably impacting regions like Arabia, Syria, and neighboring countries. Generated by extreme desert heat, it carries dust and sand, reshaping deserts and sand dunes during late Spring and Summer. Despite its brevity, lasting around 20 minutes, it can result in whirlwinds, predominantly due to low-level thermic heating, significantly impacting desert landscapes.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Characteristics of Hot Deserts:

1. Global Distribution and Positioning

• Desert Coverage: Deserts encompass over one-fifth of the Earth’s landmass, spanning every continent.
• Hot Desert Locations: Hot deserts primarily reside around the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, typically between 15° and 30° north or south of the equator.
• Association with Atmospheric Conditions: These deserts align with the Horse Latitudes or Sub-Tropical High-Pressure Belts, where descending air impedes precipitation.

2. Influence of Air Movement and Relative Humidity

• Wind Patterns: Rain-bearing Trade Winds diverge away from deserts, while the on-shore Westerlies stay outside desert limits. The arriving winds, cooler and with reduced humidity, discourage condensation.
• Minimal Cloud and Low Humidity: The skies over deserts remain predominantly clear, with relative humidity plummeting from 60% in coastal regions to less than 30% in desert interiors. This arid environment facilitates constant evaporation, establishing a perpetual state of drought.

3. Rare Precipitation and Local Effects

• Scarce Rainfall: Desert regions experience unreliable and minimal precipitation.
• Effect of Cold Currents: Cold currents along western coasts generate mists and fogs, but as they interact with the warm land, little rainfall occurs. Notably, the Atacama or Peruvian Desert epitomizes extreme aridity with an annual rainfall of fewer than 1.3 cm.

4. Reasons for Tropics Association

• Hadley Cell Explanation: Deserts align with the Tropics due to the Hadley Cell’s atmospheric process, where ascending warm air at the equator leads to heavy rainfall, followed by descending, dry air with elevated temperatures in the tropics.

5. Examples of Major Hot Deserts

• Desert Examples: Notable hot deserts include the expansive Sahara Desert stretching 3,200 miles east to west and approximately 1,000 miles wide. Other significant hot deserts encompass the Great Australian Desert, Arabian Desert, Iranian Desert, Thar Desert, Kalahari Desert, Namib Desert, and various deserts in North and South America, each with unique characteristics and names based on their geographical regions.

Ans. b

Explanation:

Vertical Pressure Gradient and Atmospheric Dynamics:

1. Vertical vs. Horizontal Pressure Gradients

• Vertical Pressure Gradient: Significantly larger than horizontal pressure gradient but typically counterbalanced by an almost equal, opposing gravitational force. As a result, strong upward winds are generally absent.

2. Pressure Variations with Height

• Vertical Pressure Gradient or Variation: In the lower atmosphere, pressure diminishes swiftly with altitude. This vertical pressure variation, often known as the vertical pressure gradient, decreases at an approximate rate of 34 millibars for every 300 meters in height.

3. Pressure-Driven Air Motion

• Cause of Air Motion: Atmospheric pressure variances drive air movement, leading winds to flow from areas of high pressure toward regions of low pressure.

4. Pressure Changes and Weather Indicators

• Weather Indicators: Rising pressure signifies stable, clear weather conditions, while falling pressure indicates potential instability and cloudy weather.

5. Pressure Variability and Altitude

• Altitude and Pressure Relations: At higher elevations, such as at the summit of Mt. Everest, air pressure is significantly lower, approximately two-thirds less than at sea level.
• Variable Factors Affecting Pressure: Pressure decrease with altitude isn’t constant due to changing factors influencing air density—temperature, water vapor content, and gravity. This variability prevents a simple, direct relationship between altitude and pressure.

6. Gravity, Density, and Pressure

• Gravity’s Influence on Pressure: At the surface, denser air due to gravity results in higher pressure. As air pressure is contingent on both density and temperature, alterations in either temperature or density bring about corresponding pressure changes.

Ans. b

Explanation:

Vertical Pressure Gradient and Atmospheric Dynamics:

1. Vertical vs. Horizontal Pressure Gradients

• Vertical Pressure Gradient: Significantly larger than horizontal pressure gradient but typically counterbalanced by an almost equal, opposing gravitational force. As a result, strong upward winds are generally absent.

2. Pressure Variations with Height

• Vertical Pressure Gradient or Variation: In the lower atmosphere, pressure diminishes swiftly with altitude. This vertical pressure variation, often known as the vertical pressure gradient, decreases at an approximate rate of 34 millibars for every 300 meters in height.

3. Pressure-Driven Air Motion

• Cause of Air Motion: Atmospheric pressure variances drive air movement, leading winds to flow from areas of high pressure toward regions of low pressure.

4. Pressure Changes and Weather Indicators

• Weather Indicators: Rising pressure signifies stable, clear weather conditions, while falling pressure indicates potential instability and cloudy weather.

5. Pressure Variability and Altitude

• Altitude and Pressure Relations: At higher elevations, such as at the summit of Mt. Everest, air pressure is significantly lower, approximately two-thirds less than at sea level.
• Variable Factors Affecting Pressure: Pressure decrease with altitude isn’t constant due to changing factors influencing air density—temperature, water vapor content, and gravity. This variability prevents a simple, direct relationship between altitude and pressure.

6. Gravity, Density, and Pressure

• Gravity’s Influence on Pressure: At the surface, denser air due to gravity results in higher pressure. As air pressure is contingent on both density and temperature, alterations in either temperature or density bring about corresponding pressure changes.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Heating and Cooling Processes in the Atmosphere:

1. Heat Transmission Mechanisms

• Overview: Various methods exist for heating and cooling the atmosphere. After absorbing solar radiation (insolation), the Earth emits heat to the nearby atmospheric layers in the form of long waves.

2. Convection for Vertical Heating

• Statement 1 (Correct): Vertical heating of the atmosphere occurs through convection. As the air adjacent to the Earth’s surface warms, it ascends vertically in currents, transferring heat throughout the atmosphere. This process is primarily limited to the troposphere.

3. Conduction’s Role in Lower Atmosphere Heating

• Statement 2 (Correct): Conduction occurs when land-contacting air gradually heats up, transmitting warmth to upper layers. This process involves energy transfer between bodies of different temperatures in direct contact, where heat flows from warmer to cooler bodies. Conduction significantly contributes to heating the lower atmospheric layers.

4. Horizontal Heat Transfer: Advection

• Statement 3 (Incorrect): Heat transfer through the horizontal movement of air is termed advection. Contrary to the statement, in some cases, horizontal movement of air is more influential than vertical movement.

5. Impact on Daily Weather Variations

• Middle Latitudes and Daily Variation: Daily weather variations, especially in middle latitudes, are predominantly caused by advection alone, not by vertical movements. For instance, the ‘loo’ winds in northern India during summer are a result of the advection process in tropical regions.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Cumulonimbus Cloud Characteristics:

1. Cloud Structure and Height

• Description: Cumulonimbus clouds stretch extensively upwards in towers or plumes, commonly recognized as thunderclouds due to their unique ability to generate hail, thunder, and lightning.

2. Distinctive Features

• Appearance: These clouds typically exhibit a flat base, accompanied by a dark, wall-shaped structure hanging beneath. The cloud base might be positioned just a few hundred feet above the Earth’s surface.

3. Formation and Convection

• Origin and Development: Cumulonimbus clouds originate from convection processes. They can also form along cold fronts, specifically due to forced convection, where warmer air is compelled to ascend over incoming cold air masses.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Distinctions Between Fogs and Mists:

1. Clarification on Fogs and Mists Moisture Content

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Contrary to the statement, fogs are not drier than mists. Both fogs and mists, which are ground-level clouds, form when water condenses around particles in a substantial mass of air close to the Earth’s surface. However, mist typically contains higher moisture content. This occurs because each nucleus in mist retains a thicker layer of moisture around it compared to fog.

2. Formation and Circumstances

• Statement 2 (Incorrect): Fogs primarily occur when warm air currents intersect with colder currents. In contrast, mists usually form in mountainous areas where ascending warm air encounters a cold surface.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Annual Temperature Range Variations:

1. Definition of Annual Range

• Description: The annual range represents the difference between the warmest and coldest months, determined by averaging monthly temperatures.
• Statement 1 (Correct): Maximum annual range is observed notably across the vast interiors of continents in the Northern Hemisphere, prominently evident over regions like the Siberian Plains.
  • Continentality Effect: Land heats and cools rapidly compared to water due to differences in specific heat capacity. This leads to substantial temperature variations across seasons, notably pronounced over landmasses compared to oceans.
  • Northern Hemisphere Dynamics: With more landmass, the Northern Hemisphere interior (like the Siberian Plains) exhibits the most significant annual temperature range due to these variations, whereas the Northern Atlantic, influenced by warm ocean currents, shows a narrower range due to moderated temperatures.

2. Lowest Annual Range near the Equator

• Statement 2 (Correct): Regions within a narrow equatorial belt (approximately between 20 degrees South and 15 degrees North) experience the smallest annual temperature range, averaging around 3 degrees Celsius.
  • Equatorial Conditions: Proximity to the Equator results in nearly uniform insolation and consistent weather throughout the year, leading to minimal fluctuations in temperature. Consequently, these areas lack extremes of both hot and cold, hence exhibiting very low annual temperature ranges.

Ans. b

Explanation:

Normal Temperature Conditions:

• Under typical circumstances, temperature decreases as altitude increases within the troposphere at a rate of 1 degree for every 165 meters. This pattern is known as the normal lapse rate.

Temperature Inversion:

Statement 1: Incorrect

• In standard conditions, colder air usually resides above warmer air due to the typical temperature decrease with height. However, during a temperature inversion, there’s an atypical reversal where a layer of warm air rests above a layer of cooler air. Contrary to the initial statement, temperature inversions are typically short-lived events.

Statement 2: correct

• Clear, cloudless skies create ideal conditions for temperature inversion as they allow unimpeded radiation release. Additional favorable circumstances for temperature inversions include long winter nights, dry air close to the ground, slow air movement, and a surface covered in snow.

Statement 3: correct

• Temperature inversion significantly influences cloud formation, precipitation, and visibility. Visibility often decreases below the inversion due to the build-up of dust and smoke particles. Additionally, the cooler air near the base of an inversion can lead to the formation of fog in those areas.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Geostrophic Wind:

1. Concept of Geostrophic Wind

• Definition: Geostrophic wind emerges from the precise equilibrium between the Coriolis force and the pressure gradient force within atmospheric science.
• Geostrophic Equilibrium: This state, known as geostrophic equilibrium or balance, signifies the condition where the geostrophic wind develops.

2. Direction and Relation to Isobars

• Geostrophic Wind Direction: It flows parallel to the isobars, representing lines of constant pressure.
• Natural Variances: Geostrophic balance rarely remains exact in nature due to additional forces like ground friction.

3. Differences from True Wind

• True Wind vs. Geostrophic Wind: Actual winds typically deviate from the geostrophic wind due to factors such as ground-based friction.
• Conditions for Equality: The actual wind would mirror the geostrophic wind solely in the absence of friction, for instance, above the atmospheric boundary layer, and in the scenario of perfectly straight isobars.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Tropical Cyclones: Characteristics and Factors

1. Nature and Impact

• Description: Violent storms originating over tropical oceans, causing significant devastation upon reaching coastal areas due to fierce winds, intense rainfall, and storm surges.

2. Wind Movements in Tropical Cyclones

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Wind patterns within tropical cyclones run counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere, attributed to the Coriolis Force.

3. Conditions Favorable for Formation

• Statement 2 (Correct): Favorable conditions for tropical cyclone genesis include expansive warm sea surfaces with temperatures surpassing 27°C, sufficient Coriolis force to generate a cyclonic vortex, minimal fluctuations in vertical wind speed, presence of a pre-existing weak low-pressure zone, and upper-level divergence over the sea.

4. Characteristics of the ‘Eye’

• Statement 3 (Correct): The ‘eye’ represents a circular region within a severe tropical cyclone, characterized by relatively calm winds and fair weather. It typically lacks precipitation and occasionally displays clear skies or star visibility. The eye denotes the area with the lowest surface pressure and highest temperatures at upper levels.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Atmospheric Layers and Characteristics:

1. Troposphere – Dominant Atmospheric Layer

• Description: Closest layer to the planet, comprising approximately 80% of the total atmospheric mass.
• Temperature and Water Vapor: Temperature and water vapor content decrease swiftly with altitude.
• Water Vapor Concentration: Contains 99% of the atmospheric water vapor, varying across latitudes. Concentration peaks in tropical regions (up to 3%) and diminishes towards the poles.

2. Mesosphere – Cooling Layer with Coldest Temperatures

• Location: Extends from around 30 to 50 miles (50 to 85 km) above the Earth’s surface.
• Temperature Variation: Features decreasing temperatures; the mesopause, its upper boundary, hosts the coldest temperatures in Earth’s atmosphere, especially evident in summer near the pole.

3. Exosphere – Outermost Atmospheric Region

• Position: Situated as the furthest atmospheric region from Earth’s surface.
• Escape Probability: Molecules in the exosphere may escape into space if moving fast enough or be drawn back to Earth by gravity if not, with minimal chances of collision.
• Boundary and Transition: Lower boundary, known as the thermopause or exobase, fluctuates from approximately 150 to 300 miles (250-500 km) based on solar activity. Represents a transitional zone between Earth’s atmosphere and interplanetary space.

Ans. d

Explanation:

Air Pressure Dynamics:

• When heated, air expands, and when cooled, it contracts, leading to fluctuations in atmospheric pressure. These pressure variances prompt the movement of air from areas of high pressure to those of low pressure, initiating air circulation. Moreover, atmospheric pressure plays a critical role in determining whether air will ascend or descend.

Statement 1: Incorrect

• Contrary to the statement, within the lower atmosphere, pressure actually decreases rapidly rather than increases with height. However, this decline in pressure isn’t consistent due to the variability of factors influencing air density, such as temperature, moisture content, and gravitational effects. Consequently, establishing a straightforward relationship between altitude and pressure becomes challenging.

Statements 2 and 3: correct

• Atmospheric pressure isn’t consistent across all locations. The Earth’s surface experiences diverse pressure changes due to uneven surface heating. Analyzing the horizontal pressure variations involves plotting lines, known as isobars, connecting areas sharing identical pressure values on maps. Isobars represent the horizontal distribution of pressure at consistent levels. To standardize pressure measurements for comparison, adjustments are made by calculating pressure at different stations and reducing it to sea level to neutralize altitude-based effects.

Answer C

Governor’s Assent Requirement:

• The Governor’s assent is necessary for bills passed by the State legislature to become law.

2. Sending for Reconsideration:

• The Governor can send a bill back to the House for reconsideration.
• If the House returns the bill without any change, the Governor must give assent.
• Exception: The Governor cannot send a Money Bill back to the State Legislature.

3. Reserving for President’s Consideration:

• The Governor has the right to reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.
• If a bill is reserved for the President, the Governor is no longer involved in the enactment process.
• Even if the President refers the bill back for reconsideration, it goes directly to the President, not the Governor.

4. Withholding Assent:

• The Governor has the power to withhold assent to a bill.

5. Pending Bill in the Legislature:

• If any bill is pending in the House(s), the Governor can send a reminder message to those House(s) about the pending bill.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Pahari denotes ‘hilly or mountainous’ in origin. Pahari painting is a style of miniature painting that developed in the independent states of the Himalayan foothills in India. The roots of the miniature painting tradition go back to the Buddhist Pala dynasty, which ruled Bengal and Bihar from the 8th century until the end of the 11th century. Pahari paintings demonstrate challenges in their territorial classification. Pahari paintings featured both religious and secular subjects. Detailed paintings based on religious epics such as Mahabharat and Ramayana, Puranas, and Gita were frequently painted in the style. Basohli painting is a school of Pahari miniature painting that flourished in the Indian hill states during the late 17th and the 18th centuries, known for its bold vitality of colour and line. Miniature painting also flourished in the Deccan region between the 16th and 19th centuries. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:
PM Janjati Adivasi Nyaya MahaAbhiyan aims to ensure holistic development of tribal groups. It is meant to ensure last-mile welfare scheme delivery and protection for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). The scheme aims to benefit and saturate the families and habitations with basic facilities. It is a 24,000-crore project for vulnerable tribal groups. It was launched by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on the occasion of Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas (Tribal Pride Day). Modi also launched the Visksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra, a nationwide programme to reach out to all villages and include those eligible for various central schemes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Public Safety Act (PSA), 1978 is also called as The Jammu And Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978. The act extents only to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a preventive detention law where a person can be held under preventive detention up to two years. It is very similar to the National Security Act that is used by other state governments for preventive detention. A person can be detained for the following reasons:
– Threat to the maintenance of the public order to the state.
– Smuggling or abetting the smuggling of liquor.
– Engaging in transporting or concealing or keeping smuggled liquor.
When a person is detained under the PSA, the District Magistrate or Divisional Commissioners communicates the reason for the detention in writing, within 5 days. In exceptional circumstances, the DM can take 10 days to communicate these grounds. Article 22(a) of the Constitution states that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: TB remained the world’s second leading cause of death from a single infectious agent in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
This reduced India’s contribution towards global mortality from 36 per cent in the previous years to 26 percent in 2022. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
There was an increase in reporting of TB cases, crossing even the pre-pandemic high with 24.2 lakh cases in 2022. Hence, statement 3 is correct. India accounts for 27 percent of the total TB cases globally, according to the recently released Global TB Report 2023 by the World Health Organisation. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
India, Indonesia, and the Philippines, which accounted for a large share (60%) of global reductions in the number of people newly diagnosed with tuberculosis in 2020 and 2021, all recovered to levels higher than in 2019.

Answer D

Current Account Deficit (CAD):

• Definition: The current account deficit (CAD) occurs when the value of a country’s imports of goods and services is greater than its exports.
• Significance: CAD, when combined with fiscal deficit, forms twin deficits that can impact the stock market and investors.

2. Fiscal Deficit:

• Definition: Fiscal deficit is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts. It represents the money the government needs to borrow during the year.

3. Implications of CAD:

• Economic Impact: CAD significantly affects the economy, stock markets, and people’s investments.
• Investor Sentiment: A lower CAD can boost investor sentiment and make the country’s currency more attractive to investors.
• Surplus in Current Account: A surplus in the current account indicates money flowing into the country, boosting foreign exchange reserves and the local currency’s value.

4. Recent Status of India’s CAD:

• CAD in 2022-23: The CAD for the first half of 2022-23 was 3.3% of GDP. However, the situation improved in Quarter 3:2022-23 due to lower commodity prices and moderated imports.

5. Negative Effects of CAD on Economy:

• Weaker Currency: When a country’s imports exceed exports, it can lead to a weaker currency value (depreciation), affecting demand for the currency.
• Inflation Impact: Weaker currency makes imports more expensive, contributing to higher inflation and a reduction in purchasing power.
• Debt Accumulation: Inability to finance CAD with foreign investment may lead to borrowing, increasing debt levels and potentially harming the economy.

Answer: (b) They are legally binding agreements among participating nations.

Explanation: Artemis Accords are non-binding principles designed to guide civil space exploration cooperation and do not impose legal obligations on participating nations.

Answer. B

• The Western Ghats hold the record for hosting the greatest quantity of native bird species unique to India.
• The IUCN Red List classifies the Manipur Bush Quail as an ‘Endangered’ species.
• Roughly 12.40% of the world’s bird diversity is found within the borders of India.

Explanation:

Bonn Declaration:

Reducing Environmental Risks from Chemicals: Delegates at the UN Bonn summit have adopted a new framework with the primary objective of reducing environmental risks associated with hazardous chemicals.

Phasing Out Harmful Chemicals at ICCM5: At the fifth International Conference on Chemicals Management (ICCM5), participating countries made commitments to gradually phase out the most dangerous chemicals.

Global Framework on Chemicals: The Global Framework on Chemicals establishes specific targets and guidelines covering the entire lifecycle of chemicals.

Phasing Out Agricultural Pesticides:The framework aims to eliminate lethal agricultural pesticides by the year 2035.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Himalayan brown bear is the largest mammal found in Kashmir, but It is considerably smaller than the Grizzly and the Kodiak bears.
• Statement 2 is correct. The passage specifies the distribution of the Himalayan brown bear across regions in northern Afghanistan, northern Pakistan, northern India, western China, and Nepal.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Himalayan brown bear is the largest mammal found in Kashmir, but It is considerably smaller than the Grizzly and the Kodiak bears.
• Statement 2 is correct. The passage specifies the distribution of the Himalayan brown bear across regions in northern Afghanistan, northern Pakistan, northern India, western China, and Nepal.

Ans. a

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Status of the Himalayan brown bear is Critically Endangered.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Himalayan brown bear is the least arboreal bear and is primarily terrestrial, adapted to life in rolling uplands above the tree line.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. rustica, is limited to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries. It is not extensively cultivated across various countries worldwide.
• Statement 2 is correct.Gujarat as the top producer of N. tabacum in India, having the highest production and productivity.

Ans. c

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct.Reverse Repo is a monetary policy instrument utilized by the RBI to regulate the money supply in the country.
• Statement 2 is correct.Reverse Repo involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for their excess cash reserves parked with the central bank.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.VRRR auctions are conducted by the RBI to absorb or withdraw liquidity from the banking system, not to inject liquidity.
• Statement 2 is correct.Reverse Repo is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks, not the rate at which RBI lends.
• Statement 3 is correct.Repo Rate is used by monetary authorities as a tool to manage inflation by influencing the money supply.

Ans.d
Explanation:
While there was consensus among Congress members regarding their stance on World War II and the resignation of ministries, significant disagreements arose concerning the immediate commencement of a mass Satyagraha. Gandhiji and the predominant leadership presented three primary reasons for delaying the initiation of an immediate movement.

They believed that since the cause of the Allies (Britain and France) was just, opposing the Nazi forces, they should not impede their efforts in prosecuting the war. (Thus, Statement 1 is correct.)

The absence of Hindu-Muslim unity posed a substantial obstacle to launching a struggle. In the prevailing atmosphere, any civil disobedience movement could easily descend into communal conflicts or even civil war. (Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.)

They contended that the country lacked the necessary conditions for an immediate struggle. Neither were the masses prepared, nor was the Congress organizationally equipped to launch a movement. The Congress organization had weakened and become corrupt during 1938-39, characterized by indiscipline and a lack of cohesion within its ranks. Given these circumstances, a mass movement would not be resilient against the severe repressive measures the government could employ. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.)

Ans. b
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Indian business group largely supported the economic boycott during the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the benefits derived from nationalist emphasis on swadeshi, a segment of big businesses remained skeptical about the movement. Their apprehensions seemed to stem from the fear of potential labor unrest in their factories.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to expectations, the Non-Cooperation Movement saw extensive participation from Muslims across various economic strata, maintaining communal unity despite incidents like the Moppila Uprisings. In many instances, two-thirds of those apprehended were Muslims, a level of involvement unprecedented in the past and not anticipated in the future. Leaders, including Gandhi, addressed Muslim masses directly from mosques.

Statement 3 is correct: Initially led by the middle classes, the movement later encountered significant reservations from them regarding Gandhi’s program. Cities such as Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras, known as centers of elite politicians, exhibited limited response to Gandhi’s call. The appeal for actions like resigning from government service and surrendering titles was not taken seriously.

Ans.c
Explanation:
The commencement of acts of revolutionary heroism emerged as an unintended consequence of the escalating militant nationalism.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The initial phase of revolutionary endeavors stemmed from the aftermath of the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement, extending until 1917. This phase witnessed the persistence of younger elements even after the decline of the overt phase, attributable to the leadership’s inability to harness the revolutionary fervor among the youth. Government repression left no peaceful avenues for dissent. In contrast, the second phase of revolutionary activity in 1920 was triggered by the aftermath of the Non-Cooperation Movement. The abrupt termination of the Non-Cooperation Movement left many disillusioned, leading them to question the fundamental strategy of nationalist leadership, which emphasized non-violence, and prompted them to explore alternative approaches.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Initially, the early revolutionaries adopted a course inspired by the Irish nationalists and Russian Nihilists, focusing on heroic action or revolutionary terrorism in the short term. However, during the 1920s, revolutionary activities influenced by socialism gradually shifted away from individual heroic actions and gravitated towards the potential of armed mass struggle.

Ans.d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct, in India, the depressed classes faced restrictions in accessing water from public wells and ponds. In 1927, Babasaheb Ambedkar spearheaded the Mahad March at Chowdar Tank near Mumbai, aiming to secure the right for untouchables to draw water from public tanks.

Statement 2 is correct, Dr. Ambedkar initiated the temple entry movement in 1930 at Kalaram temple in Nasik.

Statement 3 is correct, 1923, Ambedkar established the ‘Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha’ (Outcastes Welfare Association), dedicated to promoting education and culture among the downtrodden.

Ans.d
Explanation:
The Belgaum Congress Session of 1924, led by Gandhi, established a basis for mutual trust between the No-Changers and the Swarajists.

Statement 1is correct, Gandhi’s initial opposition to the Swarajists’ council entry proposal due to his belief that two conflicting ideologies couldn’t coexist. However, by the end of 1924, government repression on revolutionaries and Swarajists led Gandhi to reconcile with the latter.

Statement 2 is correct, highlighting how the Swarajists’ bold and unwavering actions convinced Gandhi that they wouldn’t simply assimilate into the colonial administration. Their activities also injected vitality into a politically lackluster environment, drawing public enthusiasm.

Statement 3 is correct. Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation movement faced violence in various locations, prompting him to recognize the necessity of professional training for satyagrahis before engaging in mass struggles. Following his release from prison, he realized that public oppression of the council entry program would be counterproductive, given the oppressive British rule and the potential for violence in the struggle.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Newton’s First Law of Motion: An Introduction

Historical Context:

• Sir Isaac Newton unveiled three fundamental laws of motion during the 17th century.
• This article delves into Newton’s first law, providing insights into its key concepts.

Overview of Newton’s 1st Law:

• Newton’s first law serves as an introduction to the motion of objects and the forces influencing them.
• Specifically, it addresses the relationship between an object’s motion and the forces acting upon it.

Statement of Newton’s 1st Law:

• According to Newton’s first law, a body remains at rest or continues moving uniformly in a straight line unless an external force is applied.
• In simpler terms, an object won’t initiate motion unless an external force acts upon it. Once in motion, it persists unless another force intervenes.

Alternate Name: Law of Inertia:

• Newton’s first law is commonly referred to as the law of inertia, highlighting the tendency of objects to maintain their state of motion.

Understanding External Forces:

• External forces are alterations in the mechanical energy of an object, encompassing kinetic and potential energy changes.
• These forces originate from external agents and include examples such as friction, normal force, and air resistance.

Answer C

Igneous Rocks or Primary Rocks

1. Formation of the First Rocks:
   • The first rocks on Earth were formed through the solidification of magma.
2. Definition of Igneous or Primary Rocks:
   • Rocks formed from the solidification of magma (molten rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) are known as igneous or primary rocks.
3. Unfossiliferous Nature:
   • Igneous rocks have their origin under conditions of high temperatures, and as a result, they are unfossiliferous.
4. Examples of Igneous Rocks:
   • Some examples of igneous rocks include granite, gabbro, and basalt.
5. Types of Igneous Rocks Based on Cooling:
   • There are three types of igneous rocks based on the cooling of the molten matter: plutonic rocks, volcanic rocks, and intermediate rocks.
6. Types of Igneous Rocks Based on Acid-Forming Radical:
   • Igneous rocks are also categorized into acidic rocks and basic rocks based on the presence of acid-forming radical, silicon.
7. Intrusive Igneous Rocks (Plutonic Rocks):
   • If magma cools slowly at great depths, it results in the formation of intrusive rocks or plutonic rocks.
   • These rocks often have very large mineral grains.
   • Example: Granite.
   • These rocks become visible on the surface only after they have been uplifted and exposed through denudation.
8. Extrusive Igneous Rocks (Lava or Volcanic Rocks):
   • Rapid cooling of magma just below the surface or lava above the surface leads to the formation of extrusive rocks or volcanic rocks.
   • These rocks typically have small and smooth grains due to the rapid cooling process, preventing crystallization.
   • Example: Basalt.
   • The Deccan traps in the Indian peninsular region are of basaltic origin.
9. Basic Rocks:
   • Basic rocks contain a higher proportion of basic oxides, such as iron, aluminum, or magnesium.
   • As a result, they are denser and darker in color.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; Tranquebar, Serampore, and the Nicobar Islands were indeed Danish colonies in India.

Statement 2 is correct; Serampore served as the primary headquarters for the Danish in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the Danish involvement in India began with Marcelis de Boshouwer’s appeal for military assistance against the Portuguese, not the Dutch.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Curiosity Rover is a part of NASA’s Mars Science Laboratory (MSL) mission.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Curiosity Rover was launched in the year 2012.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. It is the largest and most capable rover ever sent to Mars.

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The recent amendment under the RBI’s Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) includes the overseas use of credit cards by Indian residents within the $250,000 limit, not debit cards.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The LRS allows resident individuals to remit up to $250,000 per financial year for any permissible current or capital account transactions, and it is indeed not available to Corporates, partnership firms, HUF, and Trusts.

Ans. b
Why in News: A fresh warning for a tropical cyclone has just been issued for the Gulf of Carpentaria.
Overview of the Gulf of Carpentaria:
Positioned on the northern coastline of Australia, the Gulf of Carpentaria serves as an inlet of the eastern Arafura Sea.
Spanning an extensive area of 120,000 square miles (310,000 square km), it reaches depths of up to 230 feet (70 meters).
Its width varies from 590 kilometers at the mouth to 675 kilometers near the southern coast, stretching over 700 kilometers from north to south.
The gulf encompasses a continental shelf shared by both New Guinea and Australia.
Geological Features:
A ridge in Torres Strait acts as a natural boundary, separating the gulf from the Coral Sea to the east.
Notably, it stands as a contemporary example of an epicontinental sea, a geological characteristic more prevalent in earlier epochs.
Hydrology and Rivers: The gulf is nourished by the influx of numerous rivers, including the Roper, Wilton, Walker, Calvert, Flinders, McArthur, and Norman Rivers.
Islands and Marine Life:
Within its expanse, the gulf hosts several islands, with Groote Eylandt being the largest.
The region also features fringing reefs and thriving coral colonies, contributing to its rich marine biodiversity.
Economic Significance: In the 20th and 21st centuries, the Gulf of Carpentaria garnered international attention due to the discovery and exploitation of valuable mineral resources like manganese and bauxite.

Why in News: The initiation of the ‘core loading’ procedure at the Kalpakkam Fast Breeder reactor represents a significant achievement in India’s three-stage nuclear power program.
India’s Indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR): Situated within the Kalpakkam Atomic Power Station in Tamil Nadu, India’s inaugural indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is a notable landmark. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs): FBRs represent a category of nuclear reactors distinguished by their ability to generate more fissile material (fuel) than they consume.
Nuclear Transmutation for Fuel Generation: The surplus fuel production in FBRs is achieved through the conversion of fertile material into fissile material via the process of nuclear transmutation.
India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Power Program: India’s nuclear energy strategy encompasses a three-stage plan aimed at leveraging the nation’s thorium reserves for electricity generation.
Core Loading Milestone at Kalpakkam FBR: Recently, a significant milestone was achieved in India’s nuclear program with the commencement of core loading at the Kalpakkam Fast Breeder Reactor. This step is pivotal in fuel generation for the subsequent stages.
Closed Fuel Cycle Approach: India has embraced a “closed fuel cycle” strategy, aiming for efficient utilization and recycling of nuclear fuel resources.
Understanding Nuclear Transmutation: Nuclear transmutation involves altering the nucleus of an atom, leading to a change in its identity. This process, whether natural or artificial, results in the conversion of one element or isotope into another.

Ans. b
Explanation:
The HDI is not solely a measure of two aspects but rather a composite evaluation of a nation’s average accomplishments across three fundamental dimensions of human development: health, knowledge, and standard of living. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
The HDI indeed encompasses Amartya Sen’s “capabilities” perspective on comprehending human well-being, which prioritizes the significance of ultimate objectives, such as a satisfactory standard of living, over the methods employed to achieve them, such as income per capita.

Ans. b
Explanation:
India has recently announced a donation of $2.5 million to the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA) to aid the welfare of Palestinian refugees.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Following the 1948 Arab-Israeli conflict, UNRWA was established based on United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) Resolution 302 (IV) issued on December 8, 1949. The agency’s mission is to administer direct relief and employment programs for Palestinian refugees. Its operations officially began on May 1, 1950.

Ans. B

Explanation:

• Clean Energy Supply Chains Initiative (I):This initiative aims to facilitate research and development and support the energy transition in the Indo-Pacific region. So, the correct match is  I-C.
• Quad Infrastructure Fellowships Programme (II):This initiative intends to support policy makers and practitioners in designing, building, and managing sustainable infrastructure in their countries. Therefore, the correct match is II-A.
• Partnership for Cable Connectivity and Resilience (III):This initiative focuses on leveraging QUAD’s collective expertise in undersea cables for securing and diversifying these critical networks. Hence, the correct match is III-D.
• QUAD Investors’ Network (QUIN) (IV):This initiative has been launched as a private sector-led platform to facilitate investments in strategic technologies. So, the correct match is IV-B.

Ans. A

 Explanations:

• Statement 1:The Pact Summit aimed to discuss the repercussions of climate change, energy, health, and economic crises, particularly in the most vulnerable countries, not solely focusing on climate change. (Incorrect)
• Statement 2:The genesis of the Pact Summit was announced at the 27th Conference of Parties (COP27) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), not COP26. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. (Incorrect)
• Statement 3:The Bridgetown Initiative proposed by Barbados aimed to facilitate more financial assistance from developed to developing countries for climate and development purposes. This statement is

Ans: a) A horizontal line.

Explanation: When an object moves with a constant speed, its distance-time graph appears as a horizontal line because the distance covered does not change with time.

Ans) b

Explanation:

In India, the effective functioning of the election apparatus involves several key entities, including the Election Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer, Returning Officer, Electoral Registration Officer, Presiding officers, and Observers.

Statement 1 is CORRECT. The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) is responsible for ensuring the logistical arrangements at polling stations, including the demonstration of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in every district. Additionally, the CEO oversees the proper sealing of EVMs and election-related documents.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) plays a crucial role in evaluating the state’s law and order situation during elections. This assessment involves coordinating inter-state activities, border sealing when necessary, and ensuring that the security deployment plan aligns with directives from the Election Commission of India. Moreover, the CEO ensures the functionality of Helplines and Complaint Cells at various levels within the state.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The responsibility for allocating symbols to contesting candidates lies with the Returning Officer, not the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO). The Returning Officer oversees the election process within a specific constituency or as directed by the Election Commission of India.

Statement 4 is also incorrect. It is the Returning Officer’s duty, not the CEO’s, to review and scrutinize nomination papers, addressing any objections raised by interested parties. The Returning Officer may, based on such objections or through a summary inquiry, reject or accept nomination papers as per the established procedures.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect:In 2009, the UPSC established criteria for selecting State DGPs, following the Supreme Court’s directives on police reforms in the case of Prakash Singh vs Union of India. Recently, the UPSC modified the guidelines for appointing State Director Generals of Police (DGPs). The revised rule states that solely police officers with a minimum of six months remaining in service before retirement will be eligible for consideration in the appointment as DGPs.

Answer: Option (b) 2 only

Explanation:

• The 1^STstatement is incorrect as the 22nd Law Commission suggested no need for changes in the law related to adverse possession.
• 2^ndstatement is correct. Adverse possession does indeed permit an individual who has occupied someone else’s land unlawfully for a certain period to claim legal ownership.

Answer: Option (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Adverse possession has historical roots in India, emphasizing the utilization of land, and the law pertaining to it is indeed within the Limitation Act of 1963.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Cabinet has indeed approved the CITIIS 2.0 program, which is aimed at fostering sustainable urban development. It aims to run for a specific duration, from 2023 to 2027.
• Statement 2 is correct: CITIIS 2.0 is a program conceived by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)
• The CITIIS 2.0 initiative is indeed conceptualized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) in India. It’s designed to bring about innovative and sustainable changes in urban infrastructure and services.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Ram Prasad Bismil was indeed born on June 11, 1897, in Shahjahanpur district, United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh).

Statement 2: Harivansh Rai Bachchan, is renowned for his composition “Azadi Ka Geet” (Song of Freedom), which has been translated into numerous languages. This poem encapsulates the sentiments of India, signifying the nation’s attainment of independence and its optimistic aspirations for a promising future. However, the Bismil wrote the poem “Mainpuri ki Pratigya” in 1918, not “Azadi Ka Geet.” Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: Bismil did start a revolutionary organization called “Matrivedi” (The Altar of the Motherland) and collaborated with Genda Lal Dixit.

Ans. d

Explanation:

• Statement 1:The QUAD was initially proposed by Japan’s former Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe, in 2007, not by India, to counter China’s growing influence and assertiveness in the Indo-Pacific region. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. (Incorrect)
• Statement 2:The QUAD comprises India, Australia, Japan, and the United States, not South Korea. Hence, this statement is incorrect. (Incorrect)
• Statement 3:The primary objective of the QUAD is to ensure and support a “free, open, and prosperous” Indo-Pacific region, focusing on security and defense cooperation rather than solely economic cooperation. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. (Incorrect)

Answer:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct.Nemo judex in sua causa refers to the principle that no person shall be a judge in their own case, especially in instances involving a potential conflict of interest.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.India does not have codified rules governing recusals. The decision to recuse rests solely on the judge’s conscience and discretion.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; Tranquebar, Serampore, and the Nicobar Islands were indeed Danish colonies in India.

Statement 2 is correct; Serampore served as the primary headquarters for the Danish in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the Danish involvement in India began with Marcelis de Boshouwer’s appeal for military assistance against the Portuguese, not the Dutch.

Answer B (2^ND STATEMENT IS INCORRECT)

Metamorphic Rocks

• The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’.
• Metamorphism is a process by which recrystallisation and reorganisationof minerals occur within a rock. This occurs due to pressure, volume and temperature changes.
• When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks, metamorphosis occurs.
• In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement is called foliation or lineation.
• Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick layers. Such a structure in is called banding.
• Gneissoid, slate, schist, marble, quartzite are some examples of metamorphic rocks.

Causes of Metamorphism

• Orogenic (Mountain Building) Movements:Such movements often take place with an interplay of folding, warping and high temperatures. These processes give existing rocks a new appearance.
• Lava Inflow:The molten magmatic material inside the earth’s crust brings the surrounding rocks under the influence of intense temperature pressure and causes changes in them.
• Geodynamic Forces:The omnipresent geodynamic forces such as plate tectonics also play an important role in metamorphism.

Answer C

What is an Anti-Defection Law?

• The anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) for leaving one party for another.
• It was added to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule in 1985 to bring stability to governments by discouraging legislators from changing parties.
• Popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act, it was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
• It outlines provisions for the disqualification of elected members on grounds of defection to another political party.
• It was enacted in response to the toppling of multiple state governments by party-hopping MLAs after the general elections of 1967.

Does not Penalize Group MP/MLAs:

• The law allows a group of MP/MLAs to join (i.e., merge with) another political party without facing penalties for defection.
• It does not penalize political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, requires at least two-thirds of a party’s members to support a “merger.”

Implications:

• Disqualified members can stand for elections from any political party for a seat in the same House.
• Disqualification decisions are referred to the Chairman or Speaker of the House and are subject to judicial review.
• The law does not provide a timeframe for the presiding officer to decide a defection case.

Grounds for Defection:

• Voluntary Give Up: If an elected member voluntarily gives up party membership.
• Violation of Instructions: If a member votes against the party’s direction without permission.
• Elected Member: If an independently elected member joins a political party.
• Nominated Member: If a nominated member joins a political party after six months.

How Does Defection Affect the Political System?

• Subversion of Electoral Mandates: Legislators elected by one party may switch to another, undermining the electoral mandate.
• Affects Government Functioning: Defection can lead to instability in the government and affect administration.
• Promotes Horse Trading: Defection promotes horse-trading of legislators, contrary to democratic principles.

Challenges with Anti-Defection Law:

• Paragraph 4 of the law: Allows party mergers with the support of two-thirds of members without seat loss but lacks clarity on the national or regional level.
• Undermining Representative Democracy: Legislators are bound to follow party directions, weakening their independent judgment and accountability.
• Controversial Role of Speaker: No clarity on the timeframe for action in anti-defection cases, leading to delays.
• No Recognition of Split: The law recognizes ‘mergers’ but not ‘splits,’ creating exceptions.
• Only Allows Wholesale Defection: Amendments are needed to prevent wholesale defection.
• Affects Debate and Discussion: The law emphasizes party discipline over debate and discussion in the parliamentary process.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

The Treaty of Mangalore, signed in 1784, did not effectively resolve the ongoing conflicts between Tipu Sultan and the British. Tensions persisted, and the war was triggered when Tipu Sultan, aiming to establish his political supremacy over the Deccan, attacked Travancore—an ally of the British and the primary source of pepper for the East India Company. This act was perceived as a violation of Tipu Sultan’s sovereign rights and led to the commencement of the Third Anglo-Mysore War.

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; the French trading company was under direct government control.

Statement 2 is correct; Pondicherry’s foundation was indeed led by Martin in 1673.

Statement 3 is correct; the decline of French power in India was a result of conflicts with the British in the Carnatic wars.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; Tranquebar, Serampore, and the Nicobar Islands were indeed Danish colonies in India.

Statement 2 is correct; Serampore served as the primary headquarters for the Danish in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the Danish involvement in India began with Marcelis de Boshouwer’s appeal for military assistance against the Portuguese, not the Dutch.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; the Dutch East India Company established its first factory in Masulipatnam in 1605.

Statement 2 is correct; the Dutch primarily traded in textiles, spices, and opium in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the decline of the Dutch in India was not solely due to the Battle of Colachel but also other factors like economic conditions and conflicts with other European powers.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The French trading company in India, formed during Louis XIV’s reign, was not privately managed; instead, it was established and controlled by the government.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Pondicherry was founded after the establishment of the factory at Masulipattam. François Caron founded the factory at Surat in 1667, followed by the factory at Masulipattam by Marcara in 1669, and then the foundation of Pondicherry led by Martin in 1673.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The French power in India faced a decline between 1706 and 1720, resulting in the reconstitution of the French East India Company in 1720 to revive their influence.

Statement 2 is correct. Dupleix’s appointment as the French governor in India in 1742 initiated the Anglo-French conflicts, which are commonly known as the Carnatic wars.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The closure of old trade routes due to various conquests and geopolitical changes.

Statement 2 is incorrect; it was Vasco da Gama, not Christopher Columbus, who discovered the sea route to India in 1498.

Statement 3 is correct; the Portuguese were indeed the first Europeans to establish trade posts in India.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; Francisco de Almeida played a significant role in establishing Portuguese power in India.

Statement 2 is correct as the Portuguese did introduce tobacco cultivation and influenced Gothic architecture.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the decline of Portuguese influence was due to various reasons, including religious intolerance, conflicts with other European powers, and internal weaknesses.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; Queen Elizabeth I granted a royal charter to the British East India Company.

Statement 2 is incorrect; Captain William Hawkins was the first British to enter India via a sea route.

Statement 3 is correct; Surat was indeed the first place where the British established a trading factory in India.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; the Dutch East India Company did overpower the Portuguese and gained control over spice cultivation centers.

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect; the Dutch were defeated by the British in the Battle of Colachel in 1741, and Nagapattinam replaced Pulicat as their main center.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; Afonso de Albuquerque did capture Goa in 1510.

Statement 2 is incorrect; the decline of Portuguese influence had various reasons, and their naval strength was not the sole factor.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the Cartaz System was a trade license issued by the Portuguese for their control over trade in the Indian Ocean.

Answer C

Deccan Plateau

• It covers an area of about five lakh sq km.
• It is triangular in shape and is bounded by the Satpuraand the Vindhya in the north-west, the Mahadev and the Maikal in the north, the Western Ghats in the west and the Eastern Ghats in the east.
• Its average elevation is 600 m.
• It rises to 1000 m in the south but dips to 500 m in the north.
• Its general slope is from west to east which is indicated by the flow of its major rivers.
• Rivers have further subdivided this plateau into a number of smaller plateaus.

Answer B (1^ST STATEMENT IS INCORRECT)

Rivers in Peninsular Plateau

• The Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Narmada, and Tapti or Tapi rivers are among India’s peninsular rivers.
• They collectively drain a sizable section of rural India. In the life of Indians, these rivers have religious and cultural importance.
• The Kaveri Riveris another name for the Cauvery River. It is one of the Hindu rivers that are considered sacred.
• The river’s headwaters are in theWestern Ghats Mountain Range, in Talakaveri in Karnataka’s Kodagu District. The river flows from the south Deccan hills to the southeast lowlands.
• TheGodavari is South India’s longest and largest river. The Dakshina Ganga is another name for it.
• The Godavari is India’s second-longest river, behind the Ganga.
• The river originates in the Maharashtra district of Nashik. The river empties out into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Mahanadi Riveris a significant river in Eastern India. The river runs about 900 kilometres.

Answer C

Semiconductor Manufacturing in India

1. Need for Domestic Manufacturing of Semiconductors:
   • Semiconductors and displays are the foundation of the modern electronics industry.
   • They power a wide range of electronic devices, including computers, smartphones, and automotive sensors.
   • India depends heavily on semiconductor imports, leading to import dependency.
2. Reducing Import Dependency:
   • India currently does not produce any semiconductors, resulting in a heavy reliance on imports.
   • The demand for semiconductors in India is expected to reach around USD 100 billion by 2025, up from the current demand of USD 24 billion.
3. Overcoming Supply Chain Disruption:
   • The absence of local semiconductor manufacturing had a significant impact during the COVID-19 pandemic lockdown.
4. Geopolitical Significance:
   • Trusted sources of semiconductors and displays hold strategic importance in the current geopolitical scenario.
   • These components are crucial for the security of critical information infrastructure.

Steps Taken by the Government to Promote Indigenous Semiconductor Industry

5. India Semiconductor Mission:
   • It is established as the nodal agency for implementing schemes related to the semiconductor and display ecosystem.
   • Global experts in the semiconductor and display industry will lead the mission.
   • It will develop long-term strategies for a sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem.
6. Semiconductor Design Companies:
   • Support will be provided to 100 domestic semiconductor design companies for ICs, chipsets, SoCs, etc.
   • The scheme aims to foster the growth of at least 20 such companies with a turnover exceeding Rs. 1500 crore in five years.
7. Semiconductor Fabs and Display Fabs:
   • The scheme offers fiscal support of up to 50% of project costs for setting up semiconductor fabs and display fabs in India.
   • Collaboration with State Governments to approve applications for greenfield fabs.
8. Fiscal Support:
   • The Central Government has introduced incentives for the entire electronics supply chain, including electronic components, sub-assemblies, and finished goods.
   • A total commitment of Rs. 2,30,000 crore (USD 30 billion) to position India as a global hub for electronics manufacturing with semiconductors as a foundational building block.

Answer C

What is an Anti-Defection Law?

• The anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) for leaving one party for another.
• It was added to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule in 1985 to bring stability to governments by discouraging legislators from changing parties.
• Popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act, it was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
• It outlines provisions for the disqualification of elected members on grounds of defection to another political party.
• It was enacted in response to the toppling of multiple state governments by party-hopping MLAs after the general elections of 1967.

Does not Penalize Group MP/MLAs:

• The law allows a group of MP/MLAs to join (i.e., merge with) another political party without facing penalties for defection.
• It does not penalize political parties for encouraging or accepting defecting legislators.
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, requires at least two-thirds of a party’s members to support a “merger.”

Implications:

• Disqualified members can stand for elections from any political party for a seat in the same House.
• Disqualification decisions are referred to the Chairman or Speaker of the House and are subject to judicial review.
• The law does not provide a timeframe for the presiding officer to decide a defection case.

Grounds for Defection:

• Voluntary Give Up: If an elected member voluntarily gives up party membership.
• Violation of Instructions: If a member votes against the party’s direction without permission.
• Elected Member: If an independently elected member joins a political party.
• Nominated Member: If a nominated member joins a political party after six months.

How Does Defection Affect the Political System?

• Subversion of Electoral Mandates: Legislators elected by one party may switch to another, undermining the electoral mandate.
• Affects Government Functioning: Defection can lead to instability in the government and affect administration.
• Promotes Horse Trading: Defection promotes horse-trading of legislators, contrary to democratic principles.

Challenges with Anti-Defection Law:

• Paragraph 4 of the law: Allows party mergers with the support of two-thirds of members without seat loss but lacks clarity on the national or regional level.
• Undermining Representative Democracy: Legislators are bound to follow party directions, weakening their independent judgment and accountability.
• Controversial Role of Speaker: No clarity on the timeframe for action in anti-defection cases, leading to delays.
• No Recognition of Split: The law recognizes ‘mergers’ but not ‘splits,’ creating exceptions.
• Only Allows Wholesale Defection: Amendments are needed to prevent wholesale defection.
• Affects Debate and Discussion: The law emphasizes party discipline over debate and discussion in the parliamentary process.

Answer :

(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as blood is indeed a type of connective tissue.

Statement 2 is also correct as squamous epithelium is found in the skin, lining of the mouth, and lung alveoli, serving various functions.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Answer C

Igneous Rocks or Primary Rocks

1. Formation of the First Rocks:
   • The first rocks on Earth were formed through the solidification of magma.
2. Definition of Igneous or Primary Rocks:
   • Rocks formed from the solidification of magma (molten rock below the surface) and lava (molten rock above the surface) are known as igneous or primary rocks.
3. Unfossiliferous Nature:
   • Igneous rocks have their origin under conditions of high temperatures, and as a result, they are unfossiliferous.
4. Examples of Igneous Rocks:
   • Some examples of igneous rocks include granite, gabbro, and basalt.
5. Types of Igneous Rocks Based on Cooling:
   • There are three types of igneous rocks based on the cooling of the molten matter: plutonic rocks, volcanic rocks, and intermediate rocks.
6. Types of Igneous Rocks Based on Acid-Forming Radical:
   • Igneous rocks are also categorized into acidic rocks and basic rocks based on the presence of acid-forming radical, silicon.
7. Intrusive Igneous Rocks (Plutonic Rocks):
   • If magma cools slowly at great depths, it results in the formation of intrusive rocks or plutonic rocks.
   • These rocks often have very large mineral grains.
   • Example: Granite.
   • These rocks become visible on the surface only after they have been uplifted and exposed through denudation.
8. Extrusive Igneous Rocks (Lava or Volcanic Rocks):
   • Rapid cooling of magma just below the surface or lava above the surface leads to the formation of extrusive rocks or volcanic rocks.
   • These rocks typically have small and smooth grains due to the rapid cooling process, preventing crystallization.
   • Example: Basalt.
   • The Deccan traps in the Indian peninsular region are of basaltic origin.
9. Basic Rocks:
   • Basic rocks contain a higher proportion of basic oxides, such as iron, aluminum, or magnesium.
   • As a result, they are denser and darker in color.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Newton’s First Law of Motion: An Introduction

Historical Context:

• Sir Isaac Newton unveiled three fundamental laws of motion during the 17th century.
• This article delves into Newton’s first law, providing insights into its key concepts.

Overview of Newton’s 1st Law:

• Newton’s first law serves as an introduction to the motion of objects and the forces influencing them.
• Specifically, it addresses the relationship between an object’s motion and the forces acting upon it.

Statement of Newton’s 1st Law:

• According to Newton’s first law, a body remains at rest or continues moving uniformly in a straight line unless an external force is applied.
• In simpler terms, an object won’t initiate motion unless an external force acts upon it. Once in motion, it persists unless another force intervenes.

Alternate Name: Law of Inertia:

• Newton’s first law is commonly referred to as the law of inertia, highlighting the tendency of objects to maintain their state of motion.

Understanding External Forces:

• External forces are alterations in the mechanical energy of an object, encompassing kinetic and potential energy changes.
• These forces originate from external agents and include examples such as friction, normal force, and air resistance.