[Optional Paper 1] PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION Question Paper | UPSC Civil Services IAS Exam Mains 2024

Answer :(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

Statement 1 is correct as the General Assembly is indeed GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body.

Statement 2 is also correct, as the Bureau consists of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks.

Answer:(a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019 aimed to address NHRC’s lack of diversity.

Statement 2 is incorrect as GANHRI reviews and accredits NHRI every five years, not three years.

Answer:(b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Chip 4 Initiative aims to cut off chips to China, not increase exports.

Statement 2 is correct, as the initiative is indeed known as the “Fab 4” and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.

Answer:(b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect as the objective is to diversify the manufacturing base away from China, not concentrate it.

Statement 2 is correct; one of the objectives is indeed to develop policies regarding the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. The Chip 4 Initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries (U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea), and “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.

Ans. a

Explanation:

India intends to boost the utilization of renewable energy by investing in energy storage technologies such as batteries and pumped storage. The plan outlines government incentives, future targets for storage capacity, and underscores the significance of implementing new technologies and policies to facilitate this expansion.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The key benefit of BESS lies in its capacity to store surplus electricity generated from renewable sources such as solar and wind. By offering storage solutions, BESS can contribute to grid stabilization, enhance the dependability of renewable energy, and facilitate the integration of a greater amount of renewable energy into the grid.

Ans. a

Explanation:

The government of the Himachal Pradesh state is reevaluating the boundaries of the eco-sensitive zone surrounding Pong Dam. This initiative aims to tackle issues faced by the local population and promote agricultural activities, particularly during periods of low water levels.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect: This year, six tiger reserves have achieved accreditation under Conservation Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS), bringing the total number of accredited reserves in the country to 23—an achievement worth noting.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Despite the annual positive growth rate of 6% in India’s wild tiger population, persistent challenges include issues like poaching and habitat fragmentation. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is actively involved in collaborative initiatives with Forest Departments to tackle these challenges and ensure the protection of vital habitats and corridors for the flourishing tiger population.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect: The coordination of the portal will be a joint effort led by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), with oversight from NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Factor cost comprises payments to factors of production such as land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship, excluding taxes.
• It encompasses payments for raw materials and wages for labor in the production of goods.
• Market prices are derived by adding total indirect taxes and subtracting total subsidies from the factor cost.
• Basic prices fall in between, including production taxes (minus production subsidies) but not product taxes (minus product subsidies).
• To obtain market prices, product taxes (minus product subsidies) must be added to basic prices.

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Justification of each statement:

• The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was created by the United Nations to assess the poverty levels within a country’s community. Initially introduced as part of the Human Deprivation Report in 1997, it was later replaced by the UN’s Multidimensional Poverty Index in 2010.
• Parameters considered in HPI calculations include the probability of not surviving until the age of 40, adult illiteracy rate, lack of access to clean water, and the number of underweight small children. Hence, all the options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
• Since 1990, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has annually published the Human Development Report, offering a rank-wise list of member countries based on their human development levels. The Human Development Index and the Human Poverty Index are key indicators employed by the UNDP for measuring human development.

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Justification of each statement:

• When a person moves from place A to place B, they are considered an emigrant from the perspective of place A and an immigrant from the viewpoint of place B. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Human migration encompasses the relocation of individuals from one location to another, whether with the intention of settling permanently or temporarily.
• Migration can be categorized as permanent, temporary, or seasonal, occurring between rural-to-rural, rural-to-urban, urban-to-urban, and urban-to-rural areas. Additionally, migration can be either voluntary or forced.
• Individuals who move into a new location are referred to as immigrants, while those moving out are known as emigrants. Hence, statement 2 is

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Justification of each statement:

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual publication by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The report includes five key indices released annually: the Human Development Index (HDI), Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI), Gender Development Index (GDI), Gender Inequality Index (GII), and Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Additionally, the World Bank produces the Human Capital Index as part of its reporting.

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Justification of each statement:

The population growth in India throughout the last century has been influenced by annual birth rates, death rates, and migration, exhibiting different trends. Four distinct phases of growth have been identified during this period:

• Phase 1 (1901-1921):Characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase, this period exhibited a low growth rate, even experiencing negative growth during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate and death rate were high, resulting in slow population increase. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Phase 2 (1921-1951): Referred to as a period of steady population growth, improvements in health, sanitation, and transportation contributed to a decline in the mortality rate. Despite challenges like the Great Economic Depression and World War II, the crude birth rate remained high, leading to a higher growth rate compared to the previous phase.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Phase 3 (1951-1981):Recognized as the period of population explosion, this phase saw a rapid decline in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate, contributing to substantial population growth. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, also played a role in the elevated growth rate.Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Phase 4 (Post-1981): In the period from 1981 onwards, the country’s population growth rate, although still high, has gradually started slowing down.

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Justification of each statement:

• Urban centers are evaluated based on their function and specific needs. The location of various types of towns is determined by distinct requirements.
• For instance, a holiday resort has different siting needs compared to an industrial town, a military center, or a seaport. Strategic towns seek sites with natural defense advantages, while mining towns require the presence of economically valuable minerals. Industrial towns typically need access to local energy supplies or raw materials.
• The initial positioning of early urban settlements was influenced by factors such as the presence of water, the availability of building materials, and fertile land.
• Certain functional considerations may not inherently establish a fundamental connection between the urban center and its neighboring rural areas.
• In addition to the location of an urban settlement, the situation also significantly contributes to the growth of towns. Urban centers situated in proximity to vital trade routes have undergone swift development. Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Ans. c

Why in News: Every year on March 14th, the International Day of Mathematics (IDM) is observed.

About International Day of Mathematics:

• International Day of Mathematics, also known as Pi Day, is annually observed on March 14.
• It serves to acknowledge the mathematical constant, Pi, and its significance.
• Enthusiasts and educators worldwide celebrate this day to highlight the importance of mathematics in various aspects of life.

Why March 14?

• The date, March 14, corresponds to the first three digits of Pi, which is approximately 3.14.
• When written in the month/day format (3/14), it aligns with the numerical value of Pi.

History:

• The inaugural Pi Day was celebrated in 1988 by physicist Larry Shaw at the San Francisco Exploratorium.
• In 2009, the United States House of Representatives officially recognized March 14 as Pi Day.
• UNESCO formally designated Pi Day as the ‘International Day of Mathematics’ during its general conference in 2019.
• Notably, mathematician and physicist Albert Einstein, renowned for his “General Theory Of Relativity,” was born on Pi Day in 1879.

Ans. d
Explanation:
Why in News: Recently, a United States national encountered severe legal repercussions due to their participation in unlawfully importing and selling refrigerants, including hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and a variant of hydrochlorofluorocarbons.
Definition:,Refrigerants serve as gases that cool appliances such as refrigerators and air conditioners by absorbing heat and transferring it to a cooler environment.
Types of Refrigerants: Refrigerants encompass hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and a specific type of hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) identified as HCFC 22.
Emergence and Adoption: HFCs and HCFCs gained prominence as alternatives to chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) during the 1990s.
Environmental Impact:
Refrigerants are released into the atmosphere due to damage to appliances or car air conditioning systems.
Approximately 90% of refrigerant emissions occur during improper disposal at the end of equipment life.
Environmental Classification:
HFCs are categorized as short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs).
HCFCs are identified as both ozone-depleting substances (ODS) and potent greenhouse gases.
Montreal Protocol:
An international treaty established to safeguard the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.
Adopted on September 16, 1987, and ratified by nearly all nations worldwide.
Phasing Out Schedule: Under the Montreal Protocol, countries were required to eliminate CFCs by 1996 and HCFCs by 2030.
Kigali Amendment:
A significant addition to the Montreal Protocol, ratified on October 15, 2016, in Kigali, Rwanda.
Aims to reduce the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by 80% by the year 2047.

Why in News: North Korea launched short-range ballistic missiles towards its eastern waters just as the United States Secretary of State was getting ready to commence a democracy summit in South Korea, its neighboring country.
About Ballistic Missiles:
A ballistic missile is a propelled and self-guided weapons system designed to deliver a payload to a predetermined target following a ballistic trajectory.
Launch Mechanism: Initially powered by rockets in stages, ballistic missiles follow an unpowered trajectory, arcing upwards before descending towards the target.
Payload Capabilities: Ballistic missiles can carry various types of payloads, including conventional explosives, chemical, biological, or nuclear munitions.
Launch Platforms: These missiles can be launched from a variety of platforms, including aircraft, ships, submarines, land-based silos, and mobile platforms.
Terminology and Classification: Short- and medium-range ballistic missiles are categorized as theater ballistic missiles, while long-range ones are referred to as strategic ballistic missiles or intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs).

Ans. a
Explanation:
The Ahmadiya movement, established by Mirza Ghulam Ahmed in 1889, aimed to return to the original principles outlined in the Quran. Ghulam Ahmed became controversial by asserting his identity as a Messiah, a claim deemed heretical by mainstream Islam, though he garnered numerous followers. His primary focus was defending Islam against the arguments of the Arya Samaj and Christian missionaries. Despite its conservative stance on social morals, endorsing practices like polygamy, veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules, statement 1 is incorrect.

In contrast, the Deoband movement, initiated by the orthodox faction within Muslim scholars, functioned as a revivalist movement with the dual purpose of spreading the pure teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims. Originating in Deoband in the Saranpur district, it was established by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi (1833-1877) and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi (1828–1905) to educate religious leaders for the Muslim community.statement 2 is correct.

Ans. c
Explanation:
Why in News: Recently, scientists have discovered a novel mechanism through which Ebola replicates within the human body, pinpointing a potential target for drug development aimed at halting the spread of the viral illness.
About Ebola:
Ebola virus disease (EVD, or Ebola) is an uncommon yet highly severe illness affecting humans.
Viral Origin: Caused by various species of viruses belonging to the Ebolavirus genus, primarily prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa.
Origins of Name: Named after the Ebola River, situated close to a village in the Democratic Republic of Congo where the disease was first identified.
Transmission:
Limited Contagion: Ebola is less contagious compared to common viruses such as colds, influenza, or measles.
Mode of Spread: Transmission occurs through contact with the skin or bodily fluids of infected animals like monkeys, chimps, or fruit bats, followed by person-to-person transmission through similar means.
High-Risk Activities: Those involved in caring for the sick or handling the deceased are particularly vulnerable to contracting the disease.
Non-Airborne Transmission: Ebola does not spread through air, water, or food, and asymptomatic individuals do not transmit the virus.
Symptoms:
Onset and Progression: Symptoms typically manifest between two to 21 days after exposure to the virus, initially resembling flu-like symptoms but can escalate to severe vomiting, bleeding, and neurological complications.

Ans) a

The Ninth Schedule was introduced into the Indian Constitution by the First Constitutional (Amendment) Act of 1951, during the tenure of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. This amendment rendered laws included in the Ninth Schedule exempt from judicial scrutiny, even if they infringe upon Fundamental Rights.

Ans) b 

The term ‘coalition’ originates from the Latin word ‘coalitio,’ which translates to ‘growing together.’ Therefore, technically, a coalition signifies the act of merging components into a single entity or entirety. In the realm of politics, a coalition denotes an alliance formed by distinct political parties.

Statement 1 is correct: The Janta Party established the first-ever coalition government at the national level in India in 1977. This was a pivotal moment in Indian politics, as it marked the formation of a coalition government led by non-Congress parties. Morarji Desai served as India’s first non-Congress Prime Minister from March 1977 to June 1979.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Coalitions typically emerge in modern parliamentary systems when no single political party can secure an outright majority of votes. Two or more parties, collectively possessing enough elected members to constitute a majority, can come together to form a government. Hence, a coalition necessitates the involvement of at least two partners, not three.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While coalition politics often involves compromise, it does not invariably operate solely on the basis of a common minimum program. In cases where a political party within the coalition commands a majority to govern independently (as is observed in India’s current scenario), the common minimum program may not be adhered to.

Knowledge Base: The Common Minimum Programme is a document outlining the minimal objectives to be achieved by a coalition government. This document has gained prominence as coalition governments have become the norm in India.

Ans) c

Statement 1 is INCORRECT. According to Article 300 of the Indian Constitution, an individual or organization can bring a legal action in the High Court or Supreme Court against the central government using the name ‘Union of India’ rather than ‘Government of India.’ In the case of a State government, it should be referenced by the name of the State, and a two-month prior notice under Section 80 of the CPC is required.

Statement 2 is correct. Under the exercise of their executive powers, both the Union and State governments in India have the authority to enter into contracts for purposes such as property transactions, trade, business, and others. However, a breach of contract by the government does not grant it immunity from contractual liability. This implies that the government in India can be subject to legal action by an organization in cases of contract breaches, with the government’s contractual liability being equivalent to that of an individual under standard contract law.

Statement 3 is correct. Based on the precedent set in the P and O Steam Navigation Company case (1861), it was established that the government (both Union and State) in India can be sued for civil wrongs committed by government officials only when carrying out non-sovereign functions. Sovereign functions, such as administering justice or military activities, do not provide grounds for legal action against the government. This principle was reaffirmed by the Supreme Court in the post-independence era in the Kasturi Lal case (1965).

Ans) a

In India, the effective functioning of the election apparatus involves several key entities, including the Election Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer, Returning Officer, Electoral Registration Officer, Presiding officers, and Observers.

Statement 1 is CORRECT. The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) is responsible for ensuring the logistical arrangements at polling stations, including the demonstration of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in every district. Additionally, the CEO oversees the proper sealing of EVMs and election-related documents.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) plays a crucial role in evaluating the state’s law and order situation during elections. This assessment involves coordinating inter-state activities, border sealing when necessary, and ensuring that the security deployment plan aligns with directives from the Election Commission of India. Moreover, the CEO ensures the functionality of Helplines and Complaint Cells at various levels within the state.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The responsibility for allocating symbols to contesting candidates lies with the Returning Officer, not the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO). The Returning Officer oversees the election process within a specific constituency or as directed by the Election Commission of India.

Statement 4 is also incorrect. It is the Returning Officer’s duty, not the CEO’s, to review and scrutinize nomination papers, addressing any objections raised by interested parties. The Returning Officer may, based on such objections or through a summary inquiry, reject or accept nomination papers as per the established procedures.

Ans) a

The Parliamentary committee on external affairs has submitted a report titled “India and international law” in the Lok Sabha, which explores how Indian courts have handled matters related to international law.

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Customary international law pertains to international obligations stemming from established global practices, as opposed to obligations arising from formal written agreements and treaties. Customary international law is born out of the consistent and widespread practices of states, which they adhere to as a matter of legal duty. Two instances of customary international law include the principle of non-refoulement and the provision of immunity to visiting heads of state.

Statement 2 is incorrect: International customary laws are indeed legally binding rules that have evolved through continuous practice on a global or regional scale. States acknowledge that both treaties and customary international law are sources of international law and, therefore, carry legal obligations. This recognition is articulated, for example, in the Statute of the International Court of Justice. One illustration of the binding nature of customary international law is its application by national and international courts and tribunals.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court of India has held the view that Customary International Law (CIL), unless conflicting with domestic law, forms a part of the Indian legal framework even in the absence of specific parliamentary legislation. In cases such as Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, the Supreme Court concluded that Customary International Law that aligns with domestic law is considered to be incorporated into India’s domestic legal system. This principle has been reaffirmed in subsequent rulings, including Research Foundation for Science v. Union of India, where the Supreme Court, relying on the Vellore Citizen case, affirmed that the precautionary principle, an environmental law concept, is part of Customary International Law and, thus, a component of Indian law.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct regarding the varieties of tobacco cultivated, but statement 2 is incorrect. It is N. tabacum that is widely cultivated in most countries, while N. rustica is restricted to specific regions, including India.

Answer:(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. Gujarat has the top production and productivity of tobacco in India, and Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat as another significant producer of tobacco.

Answer:(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. The IARC categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans, and aspartame is indeed about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect as aspartame consists of two amino acids – L-aspartic acid and L-phenylalanine.

Statement 2 is correct; phenylalanine is an essential amino acid that is naturally taken from food.

Answer: (c) A wound healing material derived from the extracellular matrix of pig gall bladder

Explanation: Cholederm is specifically derived from the extracellular matrix of the decellularized gall bladder of a pig, making it a tissue-based wound healing material.

Answer :(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

Statement 1 is correct as the General Assembly is indeed GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body.

Statement 2 is also correct, as the Bureau consists of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks.

Answer:(a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019 aimed to address NHRC’s lack of diversity.

Statement 2 is incorrect as GANHRI reviews and accredits NHRI every five years, not three years.

Answer:(b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Chip 4 Initiative aims to cut off chips to China, not increase exports.

Statement 2 is correct, as the initiative is indeed known as the “Fab 4” and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.

Answer:(b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect as the objective is to diversify the manufacturing base away from China, not concentrate it.

Statement 2 is correct; one of the objectives is indeed to develop policies regarding the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. The Chip 4 Initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries (U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea), and “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.VRRR auctions are conducted by the RBI to absorb or withdraw liquidity from the banking system, not to inject liquidity.
• Statement 2 is correct.Reverse Repo is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks, not the rate at which RBI lends.
• Statement 3 is correct.Repo Rate is used by monetary authorities as a tool to manage inflation by influencing the money supply.

Ans. c

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct.Reverse Repo is a monetary policy instrument utilized by the RBI to regulate the money supply in the country.
• Statement 2 is correct.Reverse Repo involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for their excess cash reserves parked with the central bank.

Ans. b

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. rustica, is limited to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries. It is not extensively cultivated across various countries worldwide.

Statement 2 is correct. Gujarat as the top producer of N. tabacum in India, having the highest production and productivity.

Ans. d

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.The tobacco cultivation was introduced by the Portuguese in the 17th century, not by the British colonialists in the 18th century.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The rainfall should not exceed 1200 mm during the season for successful tobacco cultivation. It also notes that tobacco is sensitive to waterlogging.

Ans. d

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.The headquarters of the Tobacco Board are located in Guntur, Andhra Pradesh, not Visakhapatnam.

Ans. c

Explanation
Why in News: An 89-year-old individual living in the UK passed away as a result of an excessive intake of vitamin D.

• Vitamin D, also known as calciferol, is a fat-soluble vitamin.

Sources of Vitamin D:

• Sunlight exposure initiates vitamin D synthesis in the skin, serving as the primary natural source.
• Foods high in vitamin D include fatty fish such as salmon, tuna, and mackerel, along with fortified dairy products like milk, yogurt, and cheese.
• Additional sources comprise eggs, sunlight-exposed mushrooms, and fortified plant-based milk alternatives.

Role of Vitamin D:

• Vitamin D plays a crucial role in maintaining overall health by regulating the absorption of calcium and phosphorus, supporting bone health, and modulating immune function.
• It promotes strong bones and teeth, reduces the risk of osteoporosis, and aids in muscle function.
• With purported anti-inflammatory properties, vitamin D may help mitigate the risk of certain chronic diseases like cardiovascular disease, autoimmune disorders, and certain cancers.

Vitamin D Toxicity:

• Excessive intake of vitamin D supplements can lead to vitamin D toxicity or hypervitaminosis.
• Hypercalcemia, characterized by elevated levels of calcium, is a direct consequence of excessive vitamin D levels.
• Symptoms of hypercalcemia may include confusion, disorientation, excessive thirst, frequent urination, and kidney damage.

Symptoms and Treatment:

• Initial symptoms of vitamin D toxicity may involve nausea, vomiting, poor appetite, constipation, weakness, and weight loss.
• Treatment typically involves discontinuing vitamin D supplementation and reducing dietary sources.
• In severe cases of hypercalcemia, medical interventions such as intravenous fluids, diuretics, or medications to lower calcium levels may be required.

Ideal Intake:

• The recommended daily amount of vitamin D for adults is around 10 micrograms.
• The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for most adults ranges from 600 to 800 IU per day, with an upper limit of 4,000 IU per day to prevent toxicity.

Ans.  b

Explanation

Why in News: A program named the Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM) has been launched by seven nations: Ecuador, India, Kenya, Laos, Philippines, Uruguay, and Vietnam. Its aim is to tackle agricultural pollution stemming from pesticides and plastics. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Ans. d

Explanation:

Causes for English Success:

Private Enterprise and Autonomy:

• The English company operated as a private enterprise, fostering enthusiasm and self-confidence.
• With minimal governmental control, the company could make instant decisions without waiting for government approval.

Naval Superiority: The English navy surpassed the French navy, enabling the disruption of crucial sea links between French possessions in India and France.

Strategic Holdings: The English controlled three key locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—compared to the French, who held only Pondicherry.

Balanced Priorities: Despite imperialistic goals, the British consistently prioritized commercial interests, maintaining a sound financial condition and ample funds for wars.

Effective Leadership: The English benefited from a multitude of skilled commanders, including Sir Eyre Coote, Major Stringer Lawrence, and Robert Clive, contributing to their success.

Causes for French Failure:

Government Control and Constraints:

• The French company, a State concern, faced control and regulation by the French government.
• This governmental oversight led to policy constraints and delays in decision-making.

Limited Geographical Holdings:The French were limited to Pondicherry, lacking the strategic advantage of holding key locations like Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.

Territorial Ambition Over Commercial Interest: The French subordinated commercial interests to territorial ambition, resulting in financial shortages for the French company.

Neglect of Commercial Interests: In contrast to the British, the French neglected commercial interests, exacerbating their financial challenges.

Lack of Diverse Leadership: The French side lacked a diverse set of leaders, with Dupleix being a singular prominent figure compared to the varied leadership on the English side.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• The saintly Ramakrishna Parmahamsa (1834–86) pursued religious redemption by the customary practices of abstinence, concentration, and devotion (Bhakti). He shared his life with mystics of different faiths, including Muslims and Christians, in his pursuit of religious truth or the realization of God.
• He again and again emphasised that there were many roads to God and salvation, and that the service of man was the service of God, for man was the embodiment of God.
• Swami Vivekananda (1863–1902), a great student of his, popularized his religious message and attempted to adapt it to the needs of modern Indian culture.
• Above all, Vivekananda stressed social action. Knowledge, unaccompanied by action in the actual world in which we live, was useless‘, he said.
• Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to continue social service and humanitarian aid. The Mission continued its humanitarian work by establishing schools, hospitals, dispensaries, orphanages, libraries, etc. and had numerous branches around the nation.
• It, thus, laid emphasis not on personal salvation, but on social good or social service.

Ans. a

Explanation:

Ramabai Ranade, an Indian social worker and an early advocate for women’s rights in the 19th century, was inspired by her husband to initiate the ‘Hindu Ladies Social Club’ in Bombay, aiming to cultivate public speaking skills among women. Additionally, she held the position of founder and President of the ‘Seva Sadan Society’ in Pune, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Devoting her life to the betterment of women, Ramabai, along with her husband and colleagues, established the first girls’ high school in Pune in 1886. She also founded a branch of Arya Mahila Samaj in Bombay. At the encouragement of Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar and Mr. Bhajekar, Ramabai chaired the inaugural session of the India Women Conference in Bombay in 1904.

Statement 3 is incorrect, ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) was authored by Tarabai Shinde as a protest against the double standards prevalent in a male-dominated society.

Ans. c
Explanation:
Why in News: Even with attempts at conservation, the hangul deer of Kashmir remain in jeopardy of extinction.
Kashmir’s Hangul (Cervus hanglu hangul)
Also known as the Kashmir stag or Kashmiri red stag, this species is highly shy and sensitive.
It is the sole surviving Asiatic subspecies of the European red deer.
Distribution
Endemic to the hills of Kashmir and confined primarily to Dachigam National Park.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Classified as critically endangered.
CITES: Listed under Appendix I.
Threats: Challenges include habitat loss and poaching.
State Animal: Officially designated as the State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Dachigam National Park
Situated in Jammu and Kashmir, Dachigam National Park is nestled within the Zabarwan Range of the western Himalayas.
Established in 1981, it has been a protected area since 1910 before being declared a national park.

Ans. d
Explanation:
Why in News: The commencement of nomination submissions for the initial phase of the Lok Sabha elections occurred recently.
Nomination Process: The nomination process commences with the issuance of the notification for the Lok Sabha elections.
Candidate Registration: Candidates register their names with the Election Commission, asserting their suitability as contenders for garnering public votes in the Lok Sabha elections.
Eligibility: Voter List Inclusion: Any Indian citizen listed in the voter list is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
Party Nomination: When a candidate receives a nomination from a political party, it implies that the candidate has been endorsed by the party.
Independent Candidates: Independent candidates file their nominations along with their chosen symbols. The Election Commission reviews their application for the symbol and assigns the party symbol accordingly.
District Election Officer: The nomination form, along with the requisite security deposit, is submitted to the District Election Officer, accompanied by an affidavit.
Required Documents: Nominators must submit their passport-sized photo, Aadhar card, PAN card, domicile certificate, and caste certificate.
Property Details: Candidates are obligated to provide details regarding their movable and immovable properties, income, expenditure, as well as loans of their spouse and dependent children.
Legal Cases against the Candidate : If any criminal case is pending against the candidate or if they are involved in a court case or have received a conviction in any case, they are required to inform the Election Commission.
Withdrawal Process: Candidates have the option to withdraw their nomination after a stipulated period following the initial nomination.

Ans. c
Explanation:
Why in News: Russia, China veto U.S. bid on Gaza ‘ceasefire’ at UN Security Council
Statements 1 and 3 Correct: The composition and role of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). The UNSC comprises 5 permanent member states (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and 10 non-permanent member states elected by the United Nations General Assembly for 2-year terms.

The UNSC does not possess the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations. This responsibility lies with the United Nations General Assembly. While the Security Council evaluates membership applications and offers recommendations, the final decision rests with the General Assembly, which requires a two-thirds majority vote to admit a new member state.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The concept of “veto power” in the UNSC grants exclusive authority to the 5 permanent member states to block the adoption of resolutions. Any negative vote or “veto” from a permanent member can hinder the adoption of a resolution, irrespective of support from other members. It is important to note that the Secretary-General does not possess veto power within the Security Council.

Ans. c
Explanation:
Why in News: Recently, scientists have discovered a novel mechanism through which Ebola replicates within the human body, pinpointing a potential target for drug development aimed at halting the spread of the viral illness.
About Ebola:
Ebola virus disease (EVD, or Ebola) is an uncommon yet highly severe illness affecting humans.
Viral Origin: Caused by various species of viruses belonging to the Ebolavirus genus, primarily prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa.
Origins of Name: Named after the Ebola River, situated close to a village in the Democratic Republic of Congo where the disease was first identified.
Transmission:
Limited Contagion: Ebola is less contagious compared to common viruses such as colds, influenza, or measles.
Mode of Spread: Transmission occurs through contact with the skin or bodily fluids of infected animals like monkeys, chimps, or fruit bats, followed by person-to-person transmission through similar means.
High-Risk Activities: Those involved in caring for the sick or handling the deceased are particularly vulnerable to contracting the disease.
Non-Airborne Transmission: Ebola does not spread through air, water, or food, and asymptomatic individuals do not transmit the virus.
Symptoms:
Onset and Progression: Symptoms typically manifest between two to 21 days after exposure to the virus, initially resembling flu-like symptoms but can escalate to severe vomiting, bleeding, and neurological complications.

Ans. c
Explanation:
Why in News: The Supreme Court established a panel of experts to assess the potential, range, and viability of electric lines in critical areas for the Great Indian Bustard.
Scientific Name – Ardeotis nigric: Known Locally as Godawan, the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) belongs to the bustard family (Otididae) and ranks among the world’s heaviest flying birds.
Flight Capability: Although not adept fliers, GIBs possess expansive sideways vision to enhance predator detection.
State Bird: Recognized as the state bird of Rajasthan.
Mascot: “Gibi – The Great Indian Bustard” served as the mascot for CMS COP13 held in Gandhinagar, India in 2020.
Preferred Environment: GIBs thrive in dry grasslands and scrublands across the Indian subcontinent.
Population Centers: Major populations inhabit Rajasthan, particularly in the arid grasslands of Thar Desert National Park and Pokhran Field Firing Range.
Indicator Species: Regarded as an indicator of the grassland ecosystem’s overall health.
Omnivorous Nature: GIBs consume a variety of foods.
Reproduction: GIBs exhibit slow reproductive rates, laying few eggs and providing nearly year-long parental care to their chicks.
Challenges: Habitat loss, hunting, and poaching pose significant threats to GIB populations.
Project Bustard: Launched in 2012, Project Bustard is a national conservation initiative aimed at safeguarding the GIB, alongside the Bengal florican and lesser florican.
Recovery Programme: GIB is identified as a species for the recovery program under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats by the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CMS Convention: Appendix I
CITES: Appendix I

Ans. b
Explanation:
Why in News: Recently, the United States repatriated twenty-two historical artifacts to Japan, which were plundered after the Battle of Okinawa in World War II.
US Victory:
Outcome: The Battle of Okinawa concluded as a triumph for the United States, albeit with significant casualties on both sides.
Japanese Resistance: Japanese forces demonstrated fierce resistance, exhibiting the same fervor witnessed in battles like Iwo Jima. Many defenders opted for suicide rather than surrender.

Ans. d
Explanation:
Why in News: The Majeed Brigade, affiliated with the separatist organization Baloch Liberation Army (BLA), has admitted to carrying out the assault on a compound near Pakistan’s vital Gwadar Port on Wednesday.

The Majeed Brigade serves as the suicide unit of the Baloch Liberation Army (BLA), a separatist organization based in Pakistan’s Balochistan province.
Suicide Bombings: Renowned for executing suicide bombings targeting Pakistani security forces and installations associated with the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).
Establishment: The Brigade was established in 2011 and christened in honor of Majeed, a BLA member who lost his life in an attempt to assassinate a former Prime Minister of Pakistan.
Arsenal: Reports indicate that the Majeed Brigade possesses access to advanced weaponry and explosives.

Ans. a
Explanation:
The Ahmadiya movement, established by Mirza Ghulam Ahmed in 1889, aimed to return to the original principles outlined in the Quran. Ghulam Ahmed became controversial by asserting his identity as a Messiah, a claim deemed heretical by mainstream Islam, though he garnered numerous followers. His primary focus was defending Islam against the arguments of the Arya Samaj and Christian missionaries. Despite its conservative stance on social morals, endorsing practices like polygamy, veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules, statement 1 is incorrect.

In contrast, the Deoband movement, initiated by the orthodox faction within Muslim scholars, functioned as a revivalist movement with the dual purpose of spreading the pure teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims. Originating in Deoband in the Saranpur district, it was established by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi (1833-1877) and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi (1828–1905) to educate religious leaders for the Muslim community.statement 2 is correct.

Ans. b
Explanation:
Sahodaran Ayyappan, hailing from Kerala, India, was a multifaceted figure, encompassing roles as a social reformer, thinker, rationalist, journalist, and politician. Aligned with the teachings of Sree Narayana Guru, he played a significant role in various events connected to the reformation movement in Kerala. A notable contribution was organizing Misra Bojana in Cherai in 1917. Ayyappan established the Sahodara Sangam and the journal Sahodaran, serving as the founding editor of the magazine Yukthivadhi.

While adhering to Sree Narayana Guru’s principle of ‘One caste, One religion, One God,’ Ayyappan, his disciple, underwent a transformation advocating for ‘no religion, no caste, and no God for mankind.’

Ans. b
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Indian business group largely supported the economic boycott during the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the benefits derived from nationalist emphasis on swadeshi, a segment of big businesses remained skeptical about the movement. Their apprehensions seemed to stem from the fear of potential labor unrest in their factories.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to expectations, the Non-Cooperation Movement saw extensive participation from Muslims across various economic strata, maintaining communal unity despite incidents like the Moppila Uprisings. In many instances, two-thirds of those apprehended were Muslims, a level of involvement unprecedented in the past and not anticipated in the future. Leaders, including Gandhi, addressed Muslim masses directly from mosques.

Statement 3 is correct: Initially led by the middle classes, the movement later encountered significant reservations from them regarding Gandhi’s program. Cities such as Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras, known as centers of elite politicians, exhibited limited response to Gandhi’s call. The appeal for actions like resigning from government service and surrendering titles was not taken seriously.

Ans.d
Explanation:
While there was consensus among Congress members regarding their stance on World War II and the resignation of ministries, significant disagreements arose concerning the immediate commencement of a mass Satyagraha. Gandhiji and the predominant leadership presented three primary reasons for delaying the initiation of an immediate movement.

They believed that since the cause of the Allies (Britain and France) was just, opposing the Nazi forces, they should not impede their efforts in prosecuting the war. (Thus, Statement 1 is correct.)

The absence of Hindu-Muslim unity posed a substantial obstacle to launching a struggle. In the prevailing atmosphere, any civil disobedience movement could easily descend into communal conflicts or even civil war. (Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.)

They contended that the country lacked the necessary conditions for an immediate struggle. Neither were the masses prepared, nor was the Congress organizationally equipped to launch a movement. The Congress organization had weakened and become corrupt during 1938-39, characterized by indiscipline and a lack of cohesion within its ranks. Given these circumstances, a mass movement would not be resilient against the severe repressive measures the government could employ. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.)

Ans.a
Explanation:

Subhas Chandra Bose played a crucial role and held a prominent position within the Indian National Congress. He actively participated in the anti-colonial movement under Gandhi’s guidance starting in 1921, eventually ascending to the presidency of the Congress in 1938 and 1939.

In contrast, Nehru returned to India in 1912, initially pursuing a career as an advocate but finding little satisfaction in practicing law. In 1916, he joined Annie Besant’s Home Rule League and later, in 1920, entered the national-level freedom struggle during the Non-Cooperation Movement after meeting Mahatma Gandhi.

Statement 1 is correct: In February 1922, Gandhi unilaterally terminated the non-cooperation movement due to violence at Chauri Chaura. Both Bose and Nehru were in prison at that time and expressed disappointment and frustration upon learning that the movement they had dedicated themselves to had been compelled to conclude.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Bose, during his presidency of the Congress, experienced his first disagreement with Gandhi (not Nehru) in December 1938. Bose was enthusiastic about forming a coalition government in Bengal with the Krishak Praja Party. Gandhi’s letter to Bose, instructing him to refrain from including Congress in the Bengal ministry, came as a surprising disappointment to Bose. He had believed that Gandhi shared his perspective on the Bengal ministry.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Bose sought an alternative leadership to that of the Congress. In March 1940, he organized the All-India Anti-Compromise Conference in Ramgarh to oppose the Second World War. Urging his audience to take action before it was too late, he concluded his speech with ‘Inquilab zindabad.’ This conference was unrelated to the opposition of the Hunter Commission or Nehru.

Ans. b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Bose anticipated a transformed India through a socialist revolution that would dismantle the traditional social hierarchy and caste system, paving the way for an egalitarian society without caste distinctions. Subhas Bose strongly opposed social inequality and advocated for inter-caste marriages. In contrast, Gandhi supported the varna system, considering its laws eternal and foundational for social harmony.

Statement 2 is correct. Gandhi advocated for a decentralized economy, while Bose favored industrialization. Gandhi’s vision of Swaraj included a decentralized economy without state control, rejecting both capitalism for its exploitative nature and Western socialism for its association with industrialization. Bose believed that economic freedom was crucial for social and political freedom, endorsing modernization through industrialization.

Statement 3 is correct. Gandhi aimed to make Indian villages self-sufficient and stressed vocational education, advocating for vernacular language instruction. He also supported free and compulsory education for all children aged 7 to 14. On the other hand, Bose emphasized higher education, particularly in technical and scientific fields, aligning with his vision of an industrialized India. He asserted, “National Reconstruction will be possible only with the aid of science and our scientists.”

Ans. d
Explanation:
Assertion is incorrect: In the course of the non-cooperation movement, on February 5, 1922, at Chauri-Chaura village in the Gorakhpur district of United Provinces, twenty-two policemen lost their lives in a violent episode. Disturbed by the escalating violence associated with the movement, Mahatma Gandhi promptly declared the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement. The Congress Working Committee, convened at Bardoli in February 1922, endorsed Gandhi’s decision. The committee resolved to cease all activities leading to legal violations and instead focus on constructive endeavors, such as promoting khadi, establishing national schools, and advocating for temperance, Hindu-Muslim unity, and against untouchability.

Reason is correct: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement can be attributed to several reasons:

Mahatma Gandhi perceived that people had not fully grasped or internalized the principles of non-violence. Incidents like Chauri-Chaura had the potential to transform the movement into a generally violent one. A violent uprising could easily be quelled by the colonial regime, using the occurrences of violence as a pretext to deploy the armed might of the State against the protesters.
The movement was displaying signs of weariness, a natural occurrence as sustaining a movement at an intense level for an extended period is challenging. Additionally, the government showed no inclination for negotiations, contributing to the decision to withdraw.

Ans. B
Explanation:
In 1882, the Government formed a commission led by W.W. Hunter to assess the development of education in the country since the 1854 Dispatch. The Hunter Commission primarily focused on primary and secondary education, highlighting the need for the state’s special attention to expanding and enhancing primary education, emphasizing the use of vernacular languages.

Statement 2nd is CORRECT, the commission’s recommendation regarding secondary education, suggesting two divisions: literary, leading to university, and vocational, catering to commercial careers. The commission proposed transferring control of primary education to newly established district and municipal boards. Additionally, it addressed the insufficient facilities for female education, particularly outside presidency towns, and put forth recommendations for its improvement.

Statements 1 and 3 Incorrect, these proposals were not part of the Government Resolution on Education Policy in 1913. In that resolution, the government declined the responsibility of enforcing compulsory education but endorsed the elimination of illiteracy. It urged provincial governments to promptly offer free elementary education to economically disadvantaged and less privileged sections, encouraging private initiatives for this purpose. Furthermore, the resolution aimed to enhance the quality of secondary schools and proposed the establishment of a university in each province, with an emphasis on promoting teaching activities within universities.

Ans.d
Explanation:
The Belgaum Congress Session of 1924, led by Gandhi, established a basis for mutual trust between the No-Changers and the Swarajists.

Statement 1is correct, Gandhi’s initial opposition to the Swarajists’ council entry proposal due to his belief that two conflicting ideologies couldn’t coexist. However, by the end of 1924, government repression on revolutionaries and Swarajists led Gandhi to reconcile with the latter.

Statement 2 is correct, highlighting how the Swarajists’ bold and unwavering actions convinced Gandhi that they wouldn’t simply assimilate into the colonial administration. Their activities also injected vitality into a politically lackluster environment, drawing public enthusiasm.

Statement 3 is correct. Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation movement faced violence in various locations, prompting him to recognize the necessity of professional training for satyagrahis before engaging in mass struggles. Following his release from prison, he realized that public oppression of the council entry program would be counterproductive, given the oppressive British rule and the potential for violence in the struggle.

Ans.d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct, in India, the depressed classes faced restrictions in accessing water from public wells and ponds. In 1927, Babasaheb Ambedkar spearheaded the Mahad March at Chowdar Tank near Mumbai, aiming to secure the right for untouchables to draw water from public tanks.

Statement 2 is correct, Dr. Ambedkar initiated the temple entry movement in 1930 at Kalaram temple in Nasik.

Statement 3 is correct, 1923, Ambedkar established the ‘Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha’ (Outcastes Welfare Association), dedicated to promoting education and culture among the downtrodden.

Ans.c
Explanation:
The commencement of acts of revolutionary heroism emerged as an unintended consequence of the escalating militant nationalism.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The initial phase of revolutionary endeavors stemmed from the aftermath of the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement, extending until 1917. This phase witnessed the persistence of younger elements even after the decline of the overt phase, attributable to the leadership’s inability to harness the revolutionary fervor among the youth. Government repression left no peaceful avenues for dissent. In contrast, the second phase of revolutionary activity in 1920 was triggered by the aftermath of the Non-Cooperation Movement. The abrupt termination of the Non-Cooperation Movement left many disillusioned, leading them to question the fundamental strategy of nationalist leadership, which emphasized non-violence, and prompted them to explore alternative approaches.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Initially, the early revolutionaries adopted a course inspired by the Irish nationalists and Russian Nihilists, focusing on heroic action or revolutionary terrorism in the short term. However, during the 1920s, revolutionary activities influenced by socialism gradually shifted away from individual heroic actions and gravitated towards the potential of armed mass struggle.

Ans. d
Why in News: The military has established an elite unit focused on developing crucial technologies with military uses.
Introduction of STEAG:
Research Focus: STEAG will engage in the exploration and assessment of advanced communication technologies such as 6G, Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), and quantum computing, with applications in military domains.
Leadership: The unit will be led by an officer holding the rank of Colonel.
Technological Mandate: STEAG is tasked with fostering technologies across the entire spectrum of wired and wireless systems.
Operational Functions:
Responsibilities include technical scouting, evaluation, development, and management of core Information and Communication Technology (ICT) solutions.
Additionally, STEAG will offer user interface support through maintenance and upgrades of contemporary technologies within its domain.
Strategic Impetus: Establishment of STEAG aligns with the Army’s strategy to develop t