DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 6 September 2024

The Law Commission of India: Role, Members, and Recommendations

What is the Law Commission?

The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body, reconstituted by the Union Ministry of Law and Justice to review existing laws and recommend reforms. Although not created by a law of Parliament, it plays a vital role in legal reforms and the simplification of India’s legal framework.

Law Commission of India - Drishti Judiciary

Key Roles and Functions

  • Review of Laws: It recommends the repeal of obsolete laws and suggests amendments to outdated regulations.
  • Legal Reforms: It proposes new legislation in areas requiring legal clarity or reform, often based on requests from the government.
  • Policy Guidance: The Commission advises on legal measures to fulfill Directive Principles of State Policy, as set out in the Indian Constitution.
  • Post-Enactment Audit: It reviews laws and assesses their effectiveness in achieving socio-economic objectives.

Constitution of the 23rd Law Commission

Tenure: The 23rd Law Commission was constituted on September 1, 2023, with a three-year term, until August 31, 2027.

Members: The panel will have:

  • A full-time chairperson.
  • Four full-time members, including a member-secretary.
  • Up to five part-time members.
  • Secretaries of the Legal Affairs and Legislative Departments as ex-officio members.
  • The chairperson is usually a retired Supreme Court or High Court judge, but legal scholars and serving judges can also be appointed. The Appointments Committee of Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, selects the chairperson and members.

 

Major Terms of Reference

  • Identification of Obsolete Laws: Recommend immediate repeal of laws no longer relevant.
  • Review for Simplification: Develop a Standard Operating Procedure (SoP) to periodically review laws and simplify language and processes.
  • Reforming Laws for Economic Needs: Recommend amendments to outdated laws that are not in harmony with modern economic conditions.
  • Implementation of Directive Principles: Examine existing laws for alignment with Directive Principles of State Policy, including a potential Uniform Civil Code.

Key Recommendations from the 22nd Law Commission

  • Sedition Law (Section 124A of IPC): Recommended retention of the sedition law with amendments to clarify its usage, citing internal security threats.
  • Trade Secrets Protection: Proposed a new law to protect trade secrets.
  • Simultaneous Elections: Worked on a report about holding simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and state Assemblies, but it wasn’t presented.

 

Conclusion

The Law Commission plays a crucial role in modernizing India’s legal framework by making recommendations on obsolete laws, legal reforms, and policy implementation. Its findings have led to landmark legislation, and its ongoing work on issues like the Uniform Civil Code and simultaneous elections will be important for future legal reforms.

 

Saturn’s Rings to Briefly Disappear in March 2025

In March 2025, Saturn’s iconic rings will appear to “disappear” from view when observed from Earth. This event is an optical illusion and occurs due to the way Saturn and its rings are oriented as it orbits the Sun. Here’s why and what it means.

Saturn's iconic rings will disappear in a few months — here's why

Why will Saturn’s rings disappear?

  • Tilt of Saturn: Saturn is tilted at an angle of 26.73 degrees on its axis. This tilt causes the planet, and its rings, to appear differently from Earth as it orbits the Sun. Saturn takes about 29.4 Earth years to complete one full revolution around the Sun, meaning the tilt affects how the rings are seen from Earth over time.
  • Edge-On View: Every 13 to 15 years, the rings align perfectly with Earth, showing their edge. Since the rings are incredibly thin — just tens of meters thick — this edge-on view reflects very little light, making the rings nearly invisible from Earth. This alignment will occur in March 2025, creating the optical illusion that Saturn’s rings have disappeared.
  • Reappearance: As Saturn continues its orbit, the rings will reappear as they move out of this aligned position.

This phenomenon last occurred in 2009 and will happen again in 2025.

 

Saturn’s Rings and Their Future

While the 2025 event is temporary, NASA confirmed in 2018 that Saturn is gradually losing its rings permanently:

  • Gravitational Pull: Saturn’s gravity and magnetic field are pulling the particles of its rings toward the planet in a process called “ring rain.”
  • Ring Rain: NASA estimates that an amount of water from the rings, equivalent to an Olympic-sized swimming pool, falls onto Saturn every half-hour. At this rate, Saturn could lose its rings completely in the next 300 million years.

 

Composition of Saturn’s Rings

  • Saturn’s rings consist of billions of chunks of ice and rock, ranging from tiny dust particles to large mountain-sized pieces.
  • NASA’s Cassini spacecraft data suggest that these rings may have formed around 100 million years ago, likely due to the collision of two icy moons.

 

Conclusion

Though the disappearance of Saturn’s rings in 2025 will only be a temporary optical illusion, it serves as a reminder that these majestic features are not permanent. Over the course of hundreds of millions of years, Saturn’s rings will gradually vanish due to gravitational forces, making this event a glimpse into the future of our Solar System’s changing landscape.

 

Why Haryana’s Agriculture Differs from Punjab’s

Haryana’s agricultural landscape is more diversified compared to Punjab’s predominantly rice-wheat monoculture. This distinction has important implications for environmental sustainability, crop variety, and economic outcomes.

Why Haryana's agriculture is different from Punjab's | Explained News - The  Indian Express

Punjab’s Agriculture: Rice-Wheat Monoculture

  • Heavy Dependence on Rice and Wheat: Punjab’s agriculture is dominated by rice during the kharif season and wheat in the rabi season. Over the last five years, rice accounted for 86.8% of the total kharif crop area and wheat for 97.9% of the rabi crop area.
  • Environmental and Fiscal Strain: Rice, a water-intensive crop, exacerbates groundwater depletion in Punjab. Excessive production of rice, coupled with government procurement under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) system, also results in fiscal burdens and grain surpluses.
  • Limited Crop Diversification: While Punjab ranks high in rice and wheat production, the lack of crop diversification makes the agricultural model environmentally and economically unsustainable.

Haryana’s Agriculture: A More Diversified Picture

  • Diverse Crop Mix: Unlike Punjab, Haryana’s cropping profile is more diversified. During the kharif season, less than half the total crop area is devoted to rice, with the rest allocated to cotton, bajra, and guar. In the rabi season, wheat covers just over three-fourths of the area, while rapeseed-mustard, chana, and sunflower occupy the remaining land.
  • Focus on Basmati Rice: 56.2% of Haryana’s rice area is under basmati varieties, compared to just 16.5% in Punjab. Basmati rice, primarily grown for export, consumes less water and does not rely on MSP procurement, reducing the surplus problem seen in Punjab.
  • Agro-Ecological Adaptations: Haryana’s southern regions, with limited irrigation access, primarily grow drought-resistant crops like bajra, guar, and jowar in kharif and mustard, chana, and barley in rabi. This region lacks the extensive canal network found in other parts of Haryana, necessitating crop diversity.

Policy Initiatives in Haryana

  • Bhavantar Bharpai Yojana (BBY): Haryana promotes crop diversification through MSP procurement and price deficiency payments under BBY. This scheme mainly targets crops like bajra, mustard, and sunflower, offering payments to cover the gap between MSP and market prices.
  • Increased Rice Area: Despite diversification efforts, rice acreage in Haryana has increased to record levels, reaching 16.4 lakh hectares in the current kharif season. This growth has come at the expense of cotton, as farmers shift away due to low prices and pest risks.

Conclusion

Haryana’s agriculture offers a more sustainable and diversified cropping model compared to Punjab’s monoculture. While challenges remain, especially in balancing rice and cotton production, Haryana’s efforts toward promoting crop diversity highlight a more adaptable and resilient approach to agricultural sustainability.

 

Significance of the China-Hosted FOCAC Summit with 53 African Countries in Attendance

The 2024 Forum on China-Africa Cooperation (FOCAC) holds significant geopolitical and economic importance as it represents China’s ongoing efforts to solidify and reshape its relations with Africa amidst internal economic challenges and global competition.

China-Africa summit 2024: What's in it for Beijing, Xi Jinping and Africa?  | International Trade News | Al Jazeera

What is FOCAC?

  • FOCAC Origins: Established in 2000, FOCAC is a platform to formalize cooperation between China and 53 African nations. It focuses on political, economic, and infrastructural partnerships.
  • Regular Summits: The forum holds summits every three years, alternating between China and an African member nation. The 2024 summit in Beijing marks a pivotal moment for China-Africa relations.
  • Broad Participation: This year’s summit is the largest diplomatic event hosted by China in recent years, with African leaders engaging in bilateral talks on development, industrialization, and infrastructural cooperation.

Evolving China-Africa Relations

  • Historical Ties: China has supported African countries since the 1950s, advocating for their decolonization and providing early infrastructure aid, like the Tanzania-Zambia Railway. This support earned China strong diplomatic backing in forums like the United Nations.
  • Trade Dominance: China has been Africa’s largest bilateral trading partner since 2009, with trade reaching $282 billion in 2023. Africa exports primary commodities like metals and fuel to China, while China exports manufactured goods, electronics, and machinery to Africa.
  • Belt and Road Initiative (BRI): Africa plays a key role in China’s BRI, with over $120 billion invested in infrastructure projects across the continent over the last decade.

Key Issues and Challenges

  • Debt Concerns: China’s large-scale infrastructure investments in Africa have raised concerns about debt sustainability, with countries like Zambia and Ghana defaulting on loans. The concept of “debt trap diplomacy,” where China allegedly uses loans to exert influence over nations, remains contentious.
  • China’s Domestic Economic Pressures: China’s economic slowdown and rising deflationary pressures have prompted a shift in its approach to Africa. Instead of large infrastructure projects, China is now focusing on smaller, green technology projects.
  • African Expectations: African nations, grappling with their own economic issues, are still seeking increased funding for infrastructure projects. Kenya, for instance, is looking to complete its Standard Gauge Railway despite high debt to China.

Significance of the 2024 Summit

  • Changing Strategy: Amid economic challenges, China is recalibrating its Africa strategy. President Xi Jinping’s pledge of $51 billion in funding indicates a strategic shift towards “small and beautiful” projects instead of large-scale infrastructure.
  • Balancing Trade: African nations are seeking to address the trade imbalance, where Chinese imports dominate, and to secure more favorable lending conditions.
  • Shared History: China has emphasized its historical solidarity with Africa as fellow victims of Western imperialism, using this to foster deeper connections amidst global competition, particularly with the US.

 

Conclusion

The 2024 FOCAC summit is crucial for redefining China-Africa relations. As China seeks to streamline its investments in Africa amid domestic economic struggles, both sides will need to find common ground on debt, trade balance, and sustainable development. The summit marks a turning point for China’s engagement with the African continent.

 

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

1 / 4

Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 4

Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 25%

0%