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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 30 April 2024

The Indian seafarer deserves better in choppy high seasSeafarers Seek Certification In Ghana Over Nigeria's Limitation - New  Telegraph

News Context:

  • India presented three papers at the 111th Session of the International Maritime Organization’s (IMO) Legal Committee (LEG), held from April 22 to 26, 2024.
  • These submissions tackle critical issues concerning seafarers’ security, contractual terms, and broader maritime security challenges.
  • India emphasized the necessity for a comprehensive approach to maritime security and advocated for improved contractual conditions for seafarers.

Sea Piracy Resurgence:

  • Recent pirate attacks off the coast of Somalia, including hijackings of vessels like the MV Ruen and MV Lila Norfolk in December 2023 and January 2024, indicate a resurgence of piracy.
  • India called for vigilance, proactive measures, and international cooperation to combat piracy and safeguard seafarers.
  • The impact of unlawful recruitment practices on seafarers’ well-being and international trade was highlighted under the Maritime Labour Convention 2006.

Maritime Industry Challenges:

  • The maritime industry, critical for global trade, heavily relies on seafarers who often face challenges and risks.
  • India, ranking third globally with 9.35% of global seafarers, confronts these issues, showcasing its vulnerability.
  • Addressing piracy necessitates a comprehensive land-based solution, with armed pirates endangering seafarers on nearly 90% of targeted cargo ships.
  • Enhanced international cooperation is imperative to ensure uninterrupted navigation and safeguard seafarers amid rising incidents and geopolitical tensions.

Indian Initiative for Seafarers’ Rights:

  • In response to these challenges, the Indian government and the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) initiated the ‘human rights at sea’ campaign.
  • This initiative has shed light on abuses against Indian seafarers, including those held in foreign jails or stranded in Indonesia.
  • Proactive cooperation among stakeholders and mechanisms to protect human rights in the maritime industry is emphasized.

Support for Seafarers:

  • India aims to increase its global seafaring share to 20% within the next 10 to 20 years, with ship management companies playing a pivotal role.
  • Despite challenges, Indian seafarers demonstrated resilience and professionalism during the COVID-19 pandemic, enhancing India’s reputation in the global maritime market.
  • Recent attacks on commercial ships have heightened safety concerns among Indian seafarers, with some considering leaving their jobs due to security fears.

 

The reality of the Swacch Bharat MissionSwachh Bharat Mission: A reality check | Mint

Environment Performance Index (EPI) Ranking:

  • In 2022, India was placed at the lowest position among 180 countries in the Environment Performance Index (EPI).
  • The EPI evaluates countries based on their performance in addressing climate change, environmental health, and ecosystem vitality.
  • It assesses 40 indicators across 11 issue categories, including air quality and access to drinking water and sanitation.
  • The government criticized the ranking, arguing that the methodology is flawed and fails to accurately reflect India’s environmental situation.

Challenges of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM):

  • Sanitation and waste management in India are deeply entrenched in historical caste-based practices.
  • Despite efforts by the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) to promote sanitation as a collective responsibility, caste-based practices persist.
  • While the SBM has been politically successful, it requires significant investment in capital-intensive technologies to effectively address sanitation issues.

Discrepancies in Reporting:

  • The government claims India is open defecation-free, but this assertion is contradicted by reports, such as one from the Comptroller and Auditor General in 2020 highlighting the poor quality of toilet construction.
  • Manual scavengers are still employed to clean septic tanks, with sludge often disposed of unsafely into water systems.
  • The SBM aimed to mechanize waste management processes, but the technology has failed to deliver as promised.

Evaluation of Development Models:

  • While the EPI offers a comprehensive assessment, it also reveals the unsustainability of India’s development practices.
  • Recent legal judgments, such as those by the Supreme Court, have highlighted the nexus between climate change and fundamental human rights.
  • Climate scientists attribute current environmental challenges to human activities and systemic issues.

 

On the National Clean Air ProgrammeNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP) | air pollution | ncap

NCAP Objectives and Revisions:

The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), launched in 2019, aimed to reduce atmospheric Particulate Matter (PM) concentration by 20-30% from 2017 levels by 2024, later revised to 40% by 2026.

Challenges in NCAP Implementation:

  • Under NCAP, cities with consistent violations of annual PM levels are required to develop and implement Clean Air Action Plans (CAAPs) annually.
  • While most cities have submitted CAAPs, their implementation has been inconsistent.
  • Only 60% of allocated funds have been utilized on average, with many cities spending less than 30% of their designated budgets.

Underlying Issues:

  • Implementation delays, including approval delays from competent authorities, hinder NCAP’s success.
  • Lack of standard operating procedures and well-defined timelines for implementation contribute to delays.
  • Bureaucratic hurdles and doubts about proposed mitigation measures also pose challenges.

Role of Scientific Tools:

  • Emissions Inventory (EI) and Source Apportionment (SA) studies are essential for identifying and understanding pollution sources.
  • EI provides insights into local pollution sources and helps shape targeted pollution control strategies.
  • SA studies offer detailed analysis of contributions from various sources but are resource-intensive.
  • Air Quality (AQ) modeling informs understanding of pollution dispersion, especially from distant sources.

Utilization of Scientific Tools:

  • Cities should utilize EI and SA data to target pollution sources and plan mitigation measures.
  • However, only 37% of cities have completed EI and SA studies according to the Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in non-attainment cities.
  • Cities need to set proper yearly targets and allocate funds based on their potential and infrastructure.
  • A shift towards comprehensive strategies addressing both primary and secondary pollutants is crucial.

Requirements for NCAP Success:

  • Swift implementation on the ground is crucial for NCAP’s success.
  • Implementation agencies should streamline processes and reduce bureaucratic hurdles through standardized technical evaluations.
  • Initial plans should include technical feasibility, budgeting, and time estimates to ensure effective implementation.

 

RBI tells ARCs to maintain ₹300 crore in net owned fund by FY26RBI allows asset reconstruction cos to submit resolution plans under IBC |  Mint

RBI’s Regulation for Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs):

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a ‘Master Direction’ for Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs), directing them to gradually maintain a minimum net owned fund (NOF) of ₹300 crore by FY26.
  • The Master Direction became effective on April 24, 2024.
  • Failure to comply with the NOF requirement will result in supervisory action against the ARC until it achieves the specified minimum NOF.
  • ARCs are permitted to engage solely in securitization and asset reconstruction activities as outlined in Section 10 of the Act.
  • However, ARCs with a minimum NOF of ₹1,000 crore are eligible to participate as Resolution Applicants under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).

 

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

1 / 4

Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 4

Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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