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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 29 April 2024

NHRC accreditation status faces review in Geneva this week

News Context:

  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is gearing up to defend the human rights practices of the Union government at a Geneva meeting.
  • A crucial decision on whether India’s human rights body will maintain its “A status” is anticipated.
  • The NHRC’s ratings were halted in 2023 due to concerns regarding its composition process, the involvement of police personnel in human rights investigations, and the lack of gender and minority representation in the committee.How Does The National Human Rights Commission Process A, 54% OFF

NHRC Accreditation Status Faces Review Test:

  • The determination of whether the NHRC will receive an A or B rating will impact its voting rights at the UN Human Rights Council and certain UNGA bodies.
  • Since its accreditation in 1999, India had upheld its A ranking in 2006 and 2011, while it was deferred in 2016 and later reinstated after a year.
  • In its submission, the committee criticized India for having police officers involved in its investigative procedures, labeling it as a “conflict of interest.”
  • It highlighted the absence of pluralism and gender representation, failing to adequately represent India’s diversity.
  • The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) has engaged with various countries participating in the review process to advocate its position through diplomatic channels.

Towards green growth

Rate of Interest in Report:

  • The latest Monetary Policy Report by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) prioritizes extreme weather events and climate shocks.
  • These phenomena are not only impacting food inflation but also likely influencing the broader natural rate of interest, thereby affecting the financial stability of the economy.Green Growth - YouTube

Green Economy:

  • The RBI has taken gradual steps towards embracing the transition to a green economy, acknowledging that India requires over $17 trillion to achieve its net zero ambitions by 2070.
  • A green taxonomy serves as a framework to evaluate the sustainability of economic activities and potentially rank them.
  • For example, in the ASEAN region, a layered green taxonomy continually evolves with sector-specific perspectives on sustainable pathways.

Way Ahead:

  • The RBI should conduct a comprehensive assessment of the quantitative and qualitative effects of climate change on economic and financial stability.
  • It should promote collaborative efforts to develop a dynamic green taxonomy that reflects India’s diverse developmental paths.
  • The focus should be on mitigating transitional risks to the financial system as the economy transitions towards a sustainable future.

The significance of carrier aviation

The Story So Far:

  • On March 5, both of India’s aircraft carriers, INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant, demonstrated “twin carrier operations” featuring MiG-29K fighter jets.
  • INS Vikrant, one of the carriers, is domestically designed and built, commissioned in September 2022.
  • As the two carriers sailed, they were accompanied by a flotilla of frontline warships from the Indian Navy and aircraft, totaling around 140,000 tonnes.Aircraft carrier | Definition, History, & Facts | Britannica

Significance of INS Vikrant:

  • A carrier serves as a floating city. The development of the Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC)-I, later named Vikrant, commenced in 1999.
  • A pivotal decision was made regarding the use of warship-grade steel, shifting from procurement in Russia to indigenous development, spearheaded by the Steel Authority of India, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), and Indian Navy.
  • The development of DMR-249 steel was a strategic commercial decision, now utilized in the construction of all warships in India.
  • Vikrant’s keel was laid in 2009, launched in 2013, underwent user acceptance trials from 2021 to 2022 before being commissioned.

History of Vikrant Carrier:

  • While the current Vikrant is India’s first domestically built carrier, the country has a history of operating carriers.
  • The former 19,500-tonne Vikrant, purchased from the UK in 1961, played a crucial role in the 1971 war.
  • Subsequently, INS Viraat, formerly HMS Hermes, was commissioned in 1987, followed by INS Vikramaditya procured from Russia and commissioned in 2013.

Capabilities:

  • Vikrant can accommodate an air wing of 30 aircraft, including MiG-29K fighter jets, Kamov-31 helicopters, MH-60R multi-role helicopters, indigenous Advanced Light Helicopters, and Light Combat Aircraft (Navy).
  • It utilizes the STOBAR method for launching and recovering aircraft and is equipped with a ski-jump for launching aircraft.
  • The flight deck features an independent lighting system for operations during adverse weather conditions and at night.
  • Vikrant boasts larger deck space and hallways compared to previous carriers like Vikramaditya.

Other Proposals:

  • An aircraft carrier is essential for commanding, controlling, and coordinating operations at sea and projecting combat power.
  • The Navy has proposed a second Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-II), resembling Vikrant, to be manufactured by CSL.
  • Any delay in replacement could jeopardize India’s expertise in carrier building and operation.

Global Interest:

  • Several countries are investing in carriers of varying sizes, including the US, UK, France, Russia, Japan, and China.
  • China, in particular, is progressing rapidly in carrier development, with plans for a nuclear-powered supercarrier.
  • Despite advancements in carrier-targeting missiles and drones, carrier aviation remains promising globally.

India’s Chinese import bill up 2.3 times in 15 yearsIndia Imports from China – Import Export Data and Trade Statistics

Import Status of India:

  • India’s imports from China surged to over $101 billion in 2023-24 from around $70 billion in 2018-19.
  • According to a report by the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI), China’s share of India’s industrial goods imports has increased from 21% to 30% over a span of 15 years.
  • Import of goods from China has outpaced India’s total imports by 2.3 times over the same 15-year period.

China Dominance in Industrial Sectors:

  • China stands as the primary supplier in eight major industrial sectors for India, including machinery, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, textiles, and notably, electronics.

Trade Deficit Concern:

  • The escalating trade deficit with China is worrisome, particularly as India’s exports to China have remained stagnant at around $16 billion annually, while imports have surged, resulting in a trade deficit of $387 billion.
  • However, there has been an uptick in India’s exports to China in the past year across 90 principal commodities, accounting for 67.7% of India’s export basket to China, including items such as iron ore, telecom instruments, and electronic components.

Data Analysis:

  • In 2023-24, India’s total merchandise imports amounted to $677.2 billion, with $101.8 billion worth of goods sourced from China, constituting approximately 15% of India’s total imports.
  • Notably, China’s dominance is significant in sectors such as textiles and clothing (42%), machinery (40%), chemicals and pharmaceuticals (29.2%), plastics (25.8%), and automobiles (23.3%).
  • Conversely, India exhibits lower dependence on China for imports of iron, steel, and base metals, with just a 17.6% share of inflows originating from China.

Anticyclones, hanging even now over India, link warming to heat

News Context:

  • The diminishing El Niño of 2023 is resulting in expected warm temperatures globally, while cooler temperatures spread across Pakistan, India, and West Bengal during March.
  • Despite record temperatures making headlines, this band remained cool throughout 2023.Anticyclones, hanging even now over India, link warming to heat | Explained  - Civilsdaily

Heat Waves and Global Warming:

  • Heat waves over India are a particular concern, highlighting the need for improved predictions.
  • Anticyclonic circulations over the North Indian Ocean were identified as the drivers of unusual rainfall over Odisha in March.
  • Anticyclones, characterized by clockwise winds with sinking air, can lead to high-pressure heat domes, potentially explaining events like the historic Dubai floods of April 17.

Linking Anticyclones to Heat:

  • During the pre-monsoon season, the upper-level Indian Easterly Jet (IEJ) and a strong westerly jet can generate an anticyclonic pattern over the Indian Ocean and the Indian subcontinent.
  • The pre-monsoon season sees a strong anticyclone bringing dry and hot weather, while a weak anticyclone produces milder conditions.

Amplification of Heat Waves:

  • India’s summer, particularly the pre-monsoon season, is susceptible to heat waves, emphasizing the importance of predicting and providing early warnings to mitigate risks.
  • The record warming of 2023, surpassing expectations, is partially attributed to the impact of El Niño on the Indian Easterly Jet (IEJ), resulting in stronger and more persistent anticyclones and intense heat waves.

Stages of Early Warnings:

  • Accurate early-warning systems follow a ‘ready-set-go’ approach under the ‘Sub seasonal-to-Seasonal Predictions’ project, a part of the World Climate Research Program.
  • India’s participation in this project aids in providing seasonal outlooks and resource allocations for disaster preparedness.
  • The ‘go’ step involves short- and medium-range forecasts, mobilizing resources for disaster management, including rescue efforts and hydration centers.

Preparedness and Recovery:

  • India’s prediction and early warning systems are continuously improving, integrated into the National Disaster Management Authority’s (NDMA) ‘ready-set-go’ system.
  • Remaining challenges include building resilience for the future by better predicting localized weather trajectories and engaging government departments and the public in sustained efforts.

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

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Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 25%

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