DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 16 August 2024

St Martin’s Island

Why in News: As per the alleged statement, the former Prime Minister of Bangladesh claimed that she could have stayed in power if she had handed over Bangladesh’s “St. Martin’s Island and Bay of Bengal to America.”

St Martin's Island

About St. Martin’s Island

Location:

  • Situated in the northeastern region of the Bay of Bengal, near the Bangladesh-Myanmar border.
  • Located nine kilometers from the southern tip of Bangladesh’s Cox’s Bazar-Teknaf peninsula.

Geography:

  • The island is predominantly flat with an elevation of 3.6 meters above mean sea level.
  • It is Bangladesh’s only coral island, featuring coral reefs located 10-15 km to the west-northwest.
  • The island serves as a breeding ground for sea turtles.

History:

  • Originally part of the Teknaf peninsula around 5,000 years ago, the island gradually submerged into the sea.
  • About 450 years ago, the southern part of present-day St. Martin’s Island re-emerged, with the northern parts rising above sea level within the following 100 years.
  • Arab merchants were among the first settlers on the island, arriving in the 18th century.
  • The island was initially named “Jazira” (meaning “the island” or “the peninsula”) by the merchants, later changed to “Narikel Jinjira” or “Coconut Island.”
  • In 1900, British India annexed the island during a land survey. By that time, fishermen, either Bengali or from the Rakhine community (now Myanmar), had already settled there.
  • The island was named St. Martin’s Island after the then Deputy Commissioner of Chittagong, Martin, during the British occupation.

 

Why the Worst of Food Inflation May Be Over

Why in News: Food inflation has been a significant challenge, with retail food inflation above 8% for eight consecutive months from November 2023 to June 2024. However, there is cautious optimism that inflationary pressures may ease in the coming months due to higher kharif crop plantings and favorable international food prices.

The sharp decline, though, is a statistical illusion, stemming from a high “base” inflation of 11.5% in July 2023. The monthly CFPI rise (July 2024 over June 2024), at 2.8%, translates into an annualised inflation of 33.8%.

About Food Inflation

Current Inflation Trends:

  • Retail food inflation hit 5.4% in July 2024, down from 9.4% in June. However, this decline is partly due to a high base effect from July 2023, where inflation was at 11.5%.
  • Despite the lower year-on-year figure, monthly food inflation remains high, with a 2.8% rise from June to July 2024, translating to an annualized inflation rate of 33.8%.

Monsoon Influence:

  • The southwest monsoon arrived slightly earlier than expected and has been favorable overall, with a 4.8% cumulative surplus in rainfall as of August 15, 2024.
  • Good monsoon distribution has led to higher acreage under key kharif crops such as rice, pulses, maize, oilseeds, and sugarcane.

Crop Choices:

  • Farmers are planting more arhar and maize due to higher market prices, which could help ease inflation in pulses and animal proteins.
  • Cotton planting has decreased due to flat prices and risks associated with its cultivation, with farmers shifting to crops like groundnut, soybean, maize, or paddy.

Global Food Prices:

  • Global food inflation has been negative since December 2022, with the FAO’s food price index down 3.1% in July 2024 compared to a year ago.
  • Lower international prices, particularly for wheat, reduce the risk of imported inflation and could help stabilize domestic prices.

Outlook:

  • Government wheat stocks are at their third-lowest level for August 1, but rice stocks are at a record high.
  • The potential for a bumper kharif harvest, along with La Niña conditions expected in the upcoming months, bodes well for the rabi cropping season and could lead to easing of export restrictions and stockholding limits on key commodities.

 

Why the Latest Mpox Outbreak is an ‘Emergency of International Concern’

Why in News: The World Health Organization (WHO) has declared mpox (formerly known as monkeypox) a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for the second time since 2022, due to a significant upsurge in cases, particularly in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) and neighboring countries.

What is mpox, what countries is it in and how do you catch it?

About Mpox

  • Disease: Mpox is a viral infection caused by the mpox virus (MPXV), with symptoms including fever, headache, muscle aches, low energy, and rashes that last for two to three weeks. Although typically self-limiting, it can be deadly, especially in children and immunocompromised individuals.
  • History: The virus has been known to infect humans since 1970, primarily in Africa until 2022, when it began spreading globally.

Current Concern:

  • Clade Ib Spread: The current outbreak is driven by the spread of the clade Ib strain of MPXV, which is now predominantly transmitted through sexual contact—a mode of transmission not previously associated with this clade.
  • Geographic Spread: Over 100 cases of clade Ib have been reported in Burundi, Kenya, Rwanda, and Uganda—countries that had not previously reported mpox cases.
  • Global Spread: More than 15,600 cases and 537 deaths have been reported globally in 2024 alone, raising alarms for a coordinated international response.

Risk to India:

  • Previous Cases: During the 2022 outbreak, India reported 27 confirmed cases and one death, primarily of the less deadly clade II type.
  • Potential Risk: With the first case of the more contagious clade Ib strain reported in Sweden and the interconnectedness of global travel, there is a risk of the outbreak reaching India again.

Vaccines for Mpox:

  • Available Vaccines: At least two vaccines for mpox have been recommended by the WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization.
  • Global Access: WHO has triggered an Emergency Use Listing for these vaccines to accelerate access, particularly for lower-income countries. Collaborative efforts are underway to facilitate equitable distribution of vaccines and medical tools to affected regions.

 

The Improbable 800 km Journey of Stonehenge’s Centre Stone, and Why That Matters

Why in News: New geochemical analysis has revealed that Stonehenge’s central Altar Stone, a six-tonne sandstone monolith, originated from northern Scotland, approximately 800 km away, rather than from southwest Wales as previously believed. This discovery sheds new light on the complexity of Stonehenge’s construction and the extent of collaboration in neolithic Britain.

Stonehenge - Wikipedia

About: Stonehenge 

  • Historical Significance: Stonehenge, a prehistoric monument in southern England, has long puzzled researchers with its unknown purpose, mysterious construction methods, and uncertain origins. Despite these uncertainties, it remains a marvel of neolithic engineering and a testament to the ingenuity of prehistoric humans.
  • Stone Groups: The site is composed of two main types of stones:
  • Sarsens: These large sandstone blocks form the outer circle and are believed to have been sourced from Marlborough Downs, 25 km away.
  • Bluestones: Smaller stones, traced to the Mynydd Preseli mountains in western Wales, approximately 240 km away.

Altar Stone Discovery:

  • New Findings: Recent analysis using chemical dating techniques identified the Altar Stone as originating from the Old Red Sandstone formations in the Orcadian Basin in northeast Scotland and the Orkney Islands, marking it as the most distant stone in the monument.
  • Implications: This discovery suggests that the construction of Stonehenge involved a far greater degree of cooperation across neolithic Britain than previously thought. It indicates that ancient Britons were capable of long-distance transport and communication, challenging previous notions of their social organization and technological capabilities.

Transport Theories:

  • Human Agency: The stone’s journey, over 800 km, was likely achieved through human effort rather than natural forces like glaciation, as some have speculated.
  • Land vs. Sea Route: There is debate over whether the stone was transported over land or by sea. While the sea route might have been more feasible due to the stone’s weight and the difficult terrain, some experts argue that an overland journey would have made the stone more “precious” through the efforts involved.

Significance:

  • Cultural Importance: The transport of such a large and heavy stone over such a great distance suggests that the people of the time had a compelling reason for this effort, reflecting the cultural or spiritual significance of Stonehenge and its components.
  • Historical Integration: The findings contribute to a broader understanding of neolithic Britain, highlighting the possibility of a more integrated society with extensive networks of trade and communication.

The discovery challenges previous assumptions about Stonehenge’s construction and provides a deeper insight into the sophistication of ancient societies in Britain.

 

Why Climate Change Poses an Existential Threat to the Panama Canal

Why in News: The Panama Canal, one of the world’s most critical shipping routes, is facing an existential threat due to climate change, specifically the increasing frequency and severity of droughts. These changes could severely disrupt global trade by affecting the canal’s operations, which depend heavily on a stable freshwater supply.

PANAMA CANAL

About Panama Canal

  • Historical Significance: Opened on August 15, 1914, the Panama Canal is an 82-km-long engineering marvel that connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, drastically shortening the shipping route between New York and San Francisco by approximately 12,600 km.
  • Operational Mechanics: The canal is not just a simple waterway but a complex system of locks and elevators that raise and lower ships to navigate the differing elevations of the two oceans. The system relies heavily on freshwater from Lake Gatun, an artificial reservoir created for this purpose.

Water Dependency:

  • Freshwater Usage: The canal’s lock system consumes enormous amounts of freshwater—each ship passing through requires over 50 million gallons (almost 200 million liters) of water. This water is primarily sourced from Lake Gatun, which also provides drinking water for over half of Panama’s 4.4 million residents.
  • Impact of Droughts: In 2022, severe drought conditions led to a significant drop in Lake Gatun’s water levels, causing a reduction in the number of ships able to transit the canal daily. Ships that did pass had to reduce their cargo loads to navigate the shallower waters, leading to economic losses and delays in global trade.

Climate Change Threat:

  • Increased Drought Frequency: Climate change is exacerbating the frequency and severity of droughts in Panama. Historically, Panama experienced major rainfall deficits once every 20 years, typically linked to El Niño events. However, in the last 26 years, Panama has faced three significant droughts, indicating a troubling trend likely linked to global warming.
  • Permanent Water Scarcity: Experts warn that these droughts are not anomalies but a sign of a permanent shift in Panama’s climate. As the Earth’s temperature rises, such extreme weather events are expected to become more common, posing a long-term threat to the canal’s operations.

Proposed Solutions and Challenges:

  • Damming the Rio Indio: To address the water scarcity, Panama Canal authorities have proposed creating a second water source by damming the Rio Indio. This $1.6 billion project, recently made possible by a Supreme Court ruling, aims to secure the canal’s water needs for at least the next 50 years.
  • Social and Environmental Concerns: The proposed dam would flood the homes of approximately 2,000 people, primarily from lower socio-economic backgrounds, displacing them and disrupting their livelihoods. This has sparked controversy and opposition, highlighting the complex trade-offs involved in adapting to climate change.

 

Why the Delhi High Court is Hearing a Plea Against the Exclusion of Section 377 from the New Criminal Laws

Background: Section 377 of IPC: Originally criminalized “carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman, or animal.” The Supreme Court’s 2018 ruling in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India decriminalized consensual same-sex relationships but did not eliminate the provision. The Section remained in the IPC until the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) replaced it, removing Section 377 entirely.

Concerns Raised:

Protection for Non-Consensual Sexual Offences:

  • Impact of Removal: Section 377 had a broad scope, including non-consensual acts and thus provided a level of protection for LGBTQIA+ individuals and men who might be victims of such offences. With its removal, there are concerns about a potential gap in legal protections for non-consensual sexual acts involving these groups.

Gendered Language of the BNS:

  • Gender Bias: Chapter V of the BNS, which deals with sexual offences, uses gendered language, specifically focusing on rape as an offence committed by a man against a woman. This could leave gaps in protections for non-consensual acts involving men or individuals of other genders.

Recommendations and Anomalies:

  • Parliamentary Standing Committee’s View: The committee had recommended retaining Section 377 in the BNS to address non-consensual sexual acts. The absence of such a provision in the BNS raises concerns about whether adequate legal mechanisms are in place for addressing sexual crimes against all individuals.

Case at the Delhi High Court:

  • Petition Filed: Lawyer Gantavya Gulati has filed a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) arguing that the removal of Section 377 from the IPC poses a threat, particularly to LGBTQIA+ persons and men, as it previously provided crucial protections.
  • Government’s Stance: The Centre has contended that the court cannot direct the legislature to enact provisions based on perceived anomalies. The government has indicated that the issue has been raised with the union government and is under consideration.

Alternative Protections under the BNS:

  • Section 36 (Right of Private Defence): Provides protection against offences affecting the human body, including those with the intent of committing rape or satisfying “unnatural lust.” However, the term “unnatural lust” is not explicitly defined.
  • Section 38: Allows the use of force in cases of assault with the intention of committing rape or gratifying unnatural lust. This provision is broader but lacks specific definitions related to “unnatural lust.”
  • Section 140: Addresses kidnapping or abduction where the victim is subjected to grievous harm or unnatural lust, but again, lacks a clear definition for “unnatural lust.”

 

The Delhi High Court’s hearing is crucial in addressing whether the removal of Section 377 has inadvertently created gaps in the legal protection against non-consensual sexual offences. The outcome could have significant implications for the rights and protections available to LGBTQIA+ individuals and men under the new criminal laws. The court’s decision will likely influence future legislative and legal approaches to ensuring comprehensive protection against sexual crimes.

 

Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Graphics Processing Unit,International Day of Mathematics, ‘Vocal for Local’ Initiative, Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), Promissory Note

1 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about Graphics Processing Unit
1.Similar to a central processing unit (CPU), a GPU is a chip component found in computing devices.
2.GPUs operate through parallel processing, a technique in which numerous processors manage distinct segments of a given task simultaneously.
Choose the incorrect statement:

2 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Vocal for Local’ Initiative:

  1. It is a project led by NITI Aayog as part of its Aspirational Blocks Programme.
  2. Within this endeavor, products indigenous to 500 aspirational blocks have been identified and unified under the Aakanksha brand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), consider the following statements:

  1. This scheme is designed for young girls, focuses on small deposits.
  2. Individuals residing outside the country are not qualified to initiate these accounts.
  3. Families can open SSY scheme accounts without any specified upper limit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to Promissory Note, consider the following:

  1. It represents a commitment in writing to reimburse a specific amount of money in return for a loan or alternative financial support.
  2. It is permissible only when backed by collateral.
  3. Promissory Notes issued within a particular Indian State cannot be submitted in a different State.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 18%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%