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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 14 May 2024

Stabilising India-Nepal ties in changing timesBurning Issue] India-Nepal Relations - Civilsdaily

The new government in New Delhi in June will have to address several foreign policy priorities, particularly concerning China and Nepal.

Changes Under China’s Shadow

  • New Leadership in Nepal: Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’ is replaced by K.P. Sharma Oli, known for being pro-China and anti-India.
  • China’s Response: China is eager to expand its influence in Nepal, possibly at the expense of India’s interests.
  • Political Shifts: The far-left revival is paralleled by right-wing calls for restoring the monarchy and Nepal’s Hindu identity.

Nepal – A Historical Perspective

  • Transformation: Nepal shifted from being a Hindu kingdom to a secular federal republic post-Maoist insurgency.
  • Maoist Influence: The Maoists, once based in India, became known for their ultra-nationalistic, pro-China, and anti-India stance.
  • Security Issues: Nepal was a hub for drug smuggling, arms, and terrorist activities against India, highlighted by the 1999 IC 814 hijacking.
  • Bilateral Relations: These issues led to a complex crisis affecting Nepal-India relations.

China’s Involvement

  • Proactive Stance: China is actively working against India in Nepal, potentially supporting cross-border terrorism.
  • Strategic Surveillance: India and its allies (the Quad: Australia, India, Japan, the United States, Indo-Pacific partners) are monitoring China’s moves closely.

India’s Stand

  • Low Profile: India has been maintaining a low profile, avoiding involvement in Nepal’s internal affairs.
  • Mixed Signals: There is often confusion in Nepal due to perceived mixed signals from India.
  • Development Proposal: India could propose a holistic development roadmap to gain public and political support in Nepal.
  • High-Level Engagement: Increased Indian attention could foster optimism, stimulate investment, and promote consensus on major projects.

Declining poverty ratio: a continuing trend

Trends in Poverty and Inequality

  • Unit-level data provides more accurate estimates than fact sheet averages, but poverty numbers from the fact sheet may not differ significantly from unit-level data.

Estimated poverty ratios:

  • Declined from 29.5% in 2011-12 to 10% in 2022-23 (1.77%) based on Rangarajan Committee’s poverty lines.
  • Declined from 21.9% in 2011-12 to 3% in 2022-23 (1.72%) based on Tendulkar Committee’s poverty lines.India's poverty level falls to record 22%: Planning Commission | Mint

Gini coefficient changes:

  • Rural areas: declined from 0.278 to 0.269 (0.009-point decline).
  • Urban areas: declined from 0.358 to 0.318 (0.04-point decline).

Data Collection Method

  • NSSO adjusted the recall period of data collection to improve consumption reporting.
  • Three estimates of consumption based on recall periods:
  1. Uniform Reference Period (URP)
  2. Mixed Reference Period (MRP)
  3. Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP)
  • Tendulkar Committee used MRP for 1993-94 and 2004-05 poverty ratios.
  • Planning Commission used MRP for 2009-10 and 2011-12 poverty ratios.
  • Rangarajan Committee used MMRP for 2009-10 and 2011-12, comparable with 2022-23 estimates.

Measurement Issues

  • Discussion on poverty line measurement, with calorie norm-based lines seen as outdated.
  • Expert Group (Tendulkar) used the urban poverty line of 2004-05 based on Lakdawala methodology.
  • Tendulkar Committee indirectly used calorie norms from Lakdawala Committee.
  • New consumption basket should include food components for adequate nourishment and behaviorally determined non-food expenditure.

Poverty Line

  • Based on private consumption expenditure.
  • Public expenditure would indicate higher household well-being than the poverty line suggests.
  • HCES 2022-23 included imputed values for public expenditure items.
  • Average Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) with imputation showed little difference:
  • 2.3% higher for rural areas.
  • 0.96% higher for urban areas.

Inference

  • Decline in poverty and a slight reduction in inequality in consumption expenditure.
  • Income inequality is typically higher than inequality in consumption expenditure.
  • Higher poverty cut-off points result in a larger number of people classified as poor.

The impact of 50 years of vaccination on children worldwideImmunization | UNICEF

Impact of Vaccinations

  • Over the past 50 years, about 150 million children’s lives have been saved due to vaccinations against various diseases.
  • The significant reduction in deaths from vaccine-preventable diseases is due to the global expansion of immunisation programs.
  • Measles vaccination alone accounts for 60% of these lives saved, with vaccination rates rising from under 20% in 2000 to 70% by 2021.
  • This contributed to a decrease in infant mortality rates from around 10% in 1974 to 3% in 2024.

Data Findings

  • Chart 1: Displays the number of lives saved by different vaccinations worldwide from 1974 to 2024.
  • Chart 2: Shows the regional share of children fully vaccinated against measles according to WHO data.
  • Chart 3: Illustrates the percentage of one-year-old children vaccinated against DTP3.
  • Western Pacific region had a dramatic increase in vaccination coverage from 2% in 2000 to 91% in 2021.
  • Southeast Asia’s measles vaccination rate surged from 15% in 2010 to nearly 80% in 2021.

Institutional Support and Future Directions

  • In 1974, the World Health Assembly established the Essential Programme on Immunization, leading to various global vaccination initiatives aimed at eradicating vaccine-preventable diseases.
  • Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance, a partnership involving the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, WHO, UNICEF, and the World Bank, has played a crucial role in closing gaps in vaccination coverage.
  • Continued investment and coordination by governments are essential to provide universal immunisation programs.

An overview of the Smart Cities Mission

The Smart Cities Mission (SCM), a flagship programme of the NDA-1 government, has diminished in prominence in this year’s list of poll promises and achievements.Smart Cities Mission

Understanding Smart Cities

Definition and Origin

  • The term ‘Smart City’ gained popularity post-2009, after the financial crash, referring to cities with advanced Information and Communication Technology (ICT).
  • Smart cities were envisioned as new Silicon Valleys with integrated networks of airports, highways, and other communication systems.

NDA-1 Government’s Vision

  • The NDA-1 government aimed to align with global changes through the ongoing Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM).
  • SCM was launched in June 2015, targeting 100 cities over five years but did not provide a clear definition of a smart city.

The SCM Framework

Key Aspects

  • Area-Based Development: Involves redevelopment (renewal), retrofitting (improvement), and greenfield projects (extension).
  • Pan-City Solutions: Focuses on ICT-based solutions.

Six Categories

  • E-governance
  • Waste management
  • Water management
  • Energy management
  • Urban mobility
  • Skill development

Timeline and Governance

  • Initially planned for completion by 2020, the mission was extended twice, now set to conclude by June 2024.
  • Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) led by bureaucrats or MNC representatives were created, minimizing the role of elected councils.

Challenges and Shortcomings

Selection Process Issues

  • Selecting 100 cities competitively was flawed due to diverse urban realities.
  • Only about 1% of a city’s area was selected for development, making SCM exclusionary.

Funding and Investment

  • Reports indicate a need for $1.2 trillion in capital expenditure to make Indian cities liveable by 2030, which is only 0.027% of the total requirement in urban India.
  • Less than 5% of funding has come through the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) route.

Negative Consequences

  • Infrastructure development projects under SCM have led to increased urban flooding due to the dismantling of water channels.

India, Iran sign Chabahar port operation pact

Signing of a 10-Year Contract

  • Eight years after establishing the general framework for cooperation on the Chabahar port, India and Iran signed a 10-year operational contract.
  • The contract was signed between Indian Ports Global Ltd. (IPGL) and Iran’s Port & Maritime Organisation (PMO), facilitating the operation of the Shahid-Behesti terminal.
  • IPGL will invest around $120 million in port equipment, with India also offering a $250 million credit window.Chabhar Port Link to India

Developments and Process

Port Location and Initial Agreements

  • Chabahar is a deep-water port in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province.
  • An initial memorandum of understanding for the port’s development by India was signed in May 2015.
  • The agreement was executed on May 23, 2016, during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Iran.

Trade and Cooperation

  • The agreement marked the beginning of enhanced trade, marine cooperation, and transshipment, boosting trilateral trade between India, Iran, and Afghanistan.
  • India will use the port for humanitarian aid shipments, emphasizing its commitment to regional development beyond commercial interests.

Semal trees are being wiped out in Rajasthan due to Udaipur’s Holi

Semal tree: Facts, uses, growing tips and maintenance

Holi in Udaipur

  • The silk cotton tree (Bombax ceiba L.), known locally as semal, is central to Holika Dahan festivities in Udaipur.
  • The tree is burned to celebrate the mythological victory of good over evil, making it a major attraction for Holi in Udaipur.
  • Traditionally, the debarked stem or branch of the semal tree serves as the main pillar of the bonfire.

Unique Characteristics and Role in Ecosystem

  • The silk cotton tree has a spiked trunk and fluffy seed pods, and is native to India, earning the nickname “one-tree wildlife sanctuary.”
  • It is a crucial species for maintaining forest ecosystems. Its spikes protect rock bee nests from predators like sloth bears.
  • The tree supports various species: larvae of the moth Bucculatrix crateracma feed on its leaves, golden-crowned sparrows use its seeds for nest linings, and Dysdercus bugs, Indian crested porcupines, and Hanuman langurs feed on its nectar.
  • The Garasia tribe believes they descend from semal trees, which provide them with food, fodder, and fuel wood.
  • The Kathodi tribe crafts musical instruments from its wood, while the Bhil tribe uses it to make utensils.

Holika Dahan Events

  • In 2024, Udaipur organized 500 Holika Dahan events. In contrast, rural areas hold communal events, making them less frequent.
  • Villages often unite to light a single Holika Dahan. Urban centers play a crucial role in protecting Rajasthan’s semal trees by managing the demand for these events.

50% critical mineral block auctions near closureCentre identifies 30 Critical Minerals: Why, how, and importance of the  exercise - Civilsdaily

News Context

  • Nearly half of all critical mineral blocks, 20 out of 38, are close to finalization.
  • Ola Electric and Vedanta are leading contenders for lithium and platinum group elements (PGE) blocks.
  • Officials report a “strike rate” of 30-40% for bids received in three auction tranches.
  • In addition to lithium blocks in Jammu and Kashmir, six blocks of minerals such as glauconite, graphite, nickel, PGE, potash, and titanium are located in Bihar, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu, and Uttar Pradesh.

Finally, rocky planet with atmosphere found 41 light years away

Rocky planet with an atmosphere discovered - PressReader

News Context

  • After years of searching, astronomers have discovered a rocky planet with an atmosphere, but it is inhospitable due to its molten rock surface.
  • This planet is a “super-earth,” larger than Earth but smaller than Neptune, with a rapid orbital period of 18 hours.

About the Planet

  • Named 55 Cancri e (or Janssen), it is about 8.8 times more massive than Earth, with a diameter roughly twice that of our planet.
  • It orbits its star at a distance 25 times closer than Mercury is to the Sun, with surface temperatures around 1,725 degrees Celsius.
  • Located about 41 light-years away in the constellation Cancer, within our Milky Way galaxy.
  • A light year is 9.5 trillion kilometers, the distance light travels in one year.
  • The planet is likely tidally locked, similar to how the moon is to Earth, and is part of a binary star system.

Other Findings

  • The atmosphere is likely rich in carbon dioxide or carbon monoxide, with possible traces of other gases such as water vapor and sulfur dioxide.
  • The discovery marks progress in exoplanet exploration, showcasing the potential of rocky planets with atmospheres, as evidenced by the capabilities of the Webb telescope.

 

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

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Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

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Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

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STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

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Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

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Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 25%

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