DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 12 September 2024

Why is China Raising Retirement Ages for Its Labour Force?

China is considering raising its retirement ages, marking the first such change in 40 years. The current retirement ages are 60 for men, 50 for female factory workers, and 55 for female white-collar workers. This reform is driven by multiple socioeconomic pressures, including an aging population and economic challenges.

China to Raise Retirement Age as Labour Force Shrinks

Key Reasons for Raising the Retirement Age

Declining Pension Budgets:

  • China’s pension system is under strain, with 11 of its 31 provinces already facing high deficits. Pension payouts are administered provincially, and delays in retirement would help preserve funds by reducing immediate outflows.
  • At the current rate, projections by the Chinese Academy of Sciences indicate that pensions could run out by 2035.

Increased Burden on the Workforce:

  • The ratio of workers to retirees has drastically dropped. Each retiree is now supported by the contributions of five workers, half the ratio of a decade ago. This creates a growing burden on the employed population, making it essential to keep older workers in the labor force longer.

Aging Population and Increasing Life Expectancy:

  • Life expectancy in China has risen to 78.6 years in 2023, compared to 44 years in 1960 when the current retirement ages were set. By 2035, the population aged 60 and older is expected to rise from 280 million to over 400 million, exacerbating the financial pressure on the pension system.
  • China’s long-standing one-child policy (1980–2015) has led to a shrinking younger workforce and a rapidly aging society, further stressing social security systems.

Concerns Regarding the Proposal

  • Economic Timing: The proposal comes amidst economic slowdown, marked by sluggish growth, deflation, and high youth unemployment, which reached 21.3% in June 2023. The public sees resolving unemployment as a higher priority than retirement reform.
  • Disparities Among Workers: Blue-collar and migrant workers, who already face job insecurity and exploitation, worry about the potential for extended working years without proper social security benefits. Many of these workers struggle to meet the requirement of contributing to social security for 15 years, which is necessary for pension eligibility.

Conclusion

China’s decision to raise the retirement age is a response to its aging population and financial strain on the pension system. However, the proposal faces significant challenges, including youth unemployment and concerns about equity among workers, which may complicate its implementation.

 

Does the Polaris Dawn Mission Violate the 50-Year-Old Outer Space Treaty?

The Polaris Dawn mission, a private spacewalk executed by billionaire Jared Isaacman and SpaceX on September 12, has sparked debate about whether it violates the Outer Space Treaty (OST), signed in 1967. The mission, conducted without oversight from NASA or the U.S. government, may conflict with the treaty’s stipulations regarding state responsibility in outer space activities.

SpaceX's Polaris Dawn mission to begin tomorrow for first-ever civilian  spacewalk: How to watch live - BusinessToday

Key Points of the Outer Space Treaty (OST)

The OST, signed during the Cold War, lays out foundational principles for space exploration:

  • Space for All: Outer space should be accessible for exploration and benefit all humankind.
  • No Sovereignty: Space cannot be claimed by any nation.
  • Peaceful Use: The Moon and other celestial bodies must be used for peaceful purposes.
  • No Weapons: Nuclear weapons or WMDs cannot be stationed in space.
  • State Responsibility: States are responsible for both governmental and non-governmental (private) space activities and must authorize and supervise them.
  • Liability: States are liable for any damage caused by their space objects.

 

Article VI and the Role of Private Players

Article VI of the OST is at the heart of the current debate. It mandates that non-governmental space activities must be authorized and continuously supervised by the appropriate State Party. This means that a country is responsible for any space activities carried out by entities within its borders, including private companies like SpaceX.

  • The U.S. Congress, however, limits the Federal Aviation Authority (FAA) to overseeing only rocket and spacecraft safety on Earth, not activities in space. NASA also has no regulatory control over private missions.
  • Some legal scholars argue that this lack of supervision violates Article VI of the OST. Since the Polaris Dawn mission is not subject to U.S. government oversight, Russia, as the successor to the USSR, could theoretically object.

 

Conflicting Opinions

  • Support for Treaty Violation: Some experts, like Tomasso Sgobba, believe the mission breaches Article VI due to the absence of governmental supervision.
  • Opposing Views: Others, like Ram Jakhu, argue that international law lacks clear definitions and standards for implementing the treaty, making it difficult to conclusively claim a violation.

 

Need for Treaty Updates

  • As private space exploration grows, the OST’s ambiguities may require revision. Experts suggest creating an international regulatory body to oversee space activities. Additionally, the U.S. National Space Council (NSC) has proposed a bill to regulate private space missions, but it has yet to be passed.

 

Conclusion

While the Polaris Dawn mission raises concerns about non-compliance with the OST, there is no consensus on whether it technically violates the treaty. As private companies like SpaceX push the boundaries of space exploration, the need for updated international regulations becomes increasingly apparent.

 

Can Nano DAP Replace Conventional Granular DAP in Punjab’s Rabi Season?

The Government of India is promoting nano DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate) as a cost-effective, indigenously produced alternative to the imported granular DAP, but its suitability for Punjab’s Rabi season remains debated. Punjab requires roughly 5.5 lakh tonnes of DAP annually, with 4.8 lakh tonnes needed for the Rabi season crops like wheat and potatoes. Unreliable supplies of imported granular DAP have caused concern, prompting interest in exploring alternatives.

Nano-Fertilizers

Key Differences Between Nano DAP and Granular DAP

  • Form: Nano DAP is in liquid form, unlike the solid granular version.
  • Cost-Effectiveness: A 500 ml bottle of nano DAP, priced at Rs 600, is enough for one acre of land, whereas a 50 kg bag of granular DAP costing Rs 1,350 is required for the same area of wheat.
  • Efficiency: Nano DAP reduces handling and transportation costs due to its compact and easy-to-manage form.

 

Punjab Agricultural University’s (PAU) Concerns

PAU scientists have raised doubts about the efficacy of nano DAP based on their field experiments:

  • Lower Yield: PAU’s experiments showed a substantial decrease in wheat yield compared to using granular DAP, along with shorter plant heights and sub-optimal results.
  • Nano Urea Concerns: Similar concerns were raised regarding nano urea, with PAU noting reduced yields in rice and wheat over two years of field trials.
  • PAU has recommended further trials before completely replacing conventional urea and DAP with nano versions.

 

IFFCO’s Response

IFFCO, which developed nano DAP, disagrees with PAU’s findings:

  • Field Trials: IFFCO asserts that other agricultural institutions like the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) have not raised concerns, and they recommend continuing field trials based on IFFCO’s usage guidelines.
  • Partial Replacement: The Government of India has advised using nano DAP to replace only 25-50% of conventional DAP, with granular DAP still being used at sowing and nano DAP as a foliar spray later in the crop cycle.

 

Conclusion

While nano DAP presents a cost-effective and environmentally beneficial alternative, concerns about its efficacy compared to granular DAP remain. PAU’s findings indicate that nano DAP may not be a complete replacement, especially in high-yield regions like Punjab. The partial replacement strategy, as recommended by IFFCO and the Indian government, may be a middle ground until further field trials provide more clarity on its long-term benefits.

 

Why September 12 is Observed as Saragarhi Day

Why in News: September 12 marks the 127th anniversary of the Battle of Saragarhi, regarded as one of the most heroic last stands in global military history.

  • On this day in 1897, 21 soldiers of the 36th Sikh Regiment (now 4 Sikh) held their fort against 8,000 tribal militants in the North West Frontier Province (now in Pakistan), fighting till their last breath.

Why September 12 is observed as Saragarhi Day? - Civilsdaily

About the Battle of Saragarhi:

Strategic Importance of Saragarhi

  • Location: Saragarhi was a communication post between Fort Lockhart and Fort Gulistan, in the rugged terrain of the North West Frontier Province.
  • Role: The post ensured communication between the two forts, which housed a significant number of British troops.

Events on September 12, 1897

  • Enemy Forces: Around 9 am, 8,000 to 15,000 tribal militants were spotted marching towards Saragarhi.
  • Call for Reinforcements: Sepoy Gurmukh Singh sent a message for reinforcements, but the route was blocked, and the soldiers were instructed to hold their position.
  • Fight Till the End: The soldiers, led by Havildar Ishar Singh, fought heroically for seven hours, managing to kill around 200 militants and injure 600, despite being heavily outnumbered.

Challenges Faced by the Soldiers

  • Outnumbered: 21 Sikh soldiers were up against thousands of tribal militants.
  • Limited Ammunition: Each soldier had only 400 rounds of ammunition.
  • Communication Struggles: Sepoy Gurmukh Singh, the signalman, had to manage the entire heliograph communication system alone.

Legacy of Havildar Ishar Singh

  • Commanding Officer: Havildar Ishar Singh, a seasoned warrior from Punjab, led the troops with extraordinary bravery.
  • A Maverick Leader: Known for his bold character, he had previously clashed with military superiors but was beloved by his men for his willingness to go to any lengths for them.

Role of Daad, the 22nd Soldier

  • Non-combatant Fighter: Daad, a Pashtun who performed odd jobs for the troops, fought alongside the soldiers, killing five militants before being slain.
  • Forgotten Hero: Despite his brave actions, Daad was not honored with medals like the other soldiers.

Recognition of the Soldiers’ Valor

  • Posthumous Honors: Queen Victoria awarded the 21 Sikh soldiers the Indian Order of Merit, the highest award for Indian soldiers at the time, marking a departure from the tradition of not giving posthumous awards.
  • Land Grants: Each family received 50 acres of land and Rs 500.

Commemoration and Memory

  • Saragarhi Day: In 2017, the Punjab government declared September 12 as Saragarhi Day, observed annually to honor the soldiers’ sacrifice.
  • Memorials: Gurdwaras in Amritsar and Ferozepur were built in their honor, and burnt bricks from Saragarhi were used to build a memorial obelisk at the battle site.

 

40% of Amazon Rainforest Unprotected: Significance for Climate Change

 

Why in News: An analysis by Amazon Conservation reveals that nearly 40% of the most critical areas in the Amazon rainforest remain unprotected by governmental measures, raising concerns about climate change mitigation.

Nearly 40% of Amazon rainforest most vital to climate left unprotected,  data show | Reuters

Significance of the Amazon for Climate Change:

Carbon Storage Potential

  • Critical Carbon Reserves: The Amazon holds approximately 71.5 billion tonnes of carbon, nearly double the global carbon dioxide emissions for 2022. The forest acts as a major carbon sink, absorbing carbon from the atmosphere.
  • Risk of Emissions: If the Amazon is destroyed by deforestation or fires, this stored carbon would be released into the atmosphere, accelerating global warming.

Areas Most at Risk

  • Southwest and Northeast Amazon: Key unprotected areas are located in Peru, Brazil, Suriname, and French Guiana, where the densest trees and continuous canopy hold the most carbon.
  • Lack of Protection: While 61% of peak carbon areas are protected, 40% remain vulnerable to deforestation, fire, or commercial activities like logging.

Role as a Carbon Sink vs. Emission Source

  • Carbon Absorption: The Amazon still absorbs more carbon than it releases, providing a positive outlook for global climate goals. However, recent data shows it is only barely maintaining this balance.
  • Tipping Point: If the rainforest loses its ability to absorb carbon and instead becomes a source of emissions, it could have catastrophic effects on the global climate.

Technological Insights

  • Satellite Imaging: Amazon Conservation’s analysis used advanced satellite data and machine learning to map peak carbon areas, identifying regions crucial for climate regulation.
  • Unprotected Areas’ Vulnerability: The lack of protection in high-carbon areas increases the threat of deforestation, undermining global climate efforts.

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

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STATIC QUIZ

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

1 / 4

Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 4

Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 25%

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