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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 4 June 2024

Hyderabad ceases to be shared capital from today; bifurcation issues still pending

Hyderabad ceases to be joint capital of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana |  Nagaland Post

  • End of Shared Capital Status: Starting June 2, Hyderabad will no longer serve as a common capital and will be solely the capital of Telangana.
  • Infrastructure Transfer: Infrastructure in the twin cities currently managed by Andhra Pradesh (A.P.) will be taken over by the Telangana government.
  • Building Vacations: Andhra Pradesh has agreed to vacate all buildings except those housing Schedule IX and Schedule X institutions.

‘T.N. Forest dept. has formed 20 village panels to protect mangrove cover’

IUCN Assessment

  • Critically Endangered Mangroves: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has classified mangroves in coastal regions of Tamil Nadu, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives as ‘critically endangered’ in its first global assessment of mangrove ecosystems.
  • Global Context: Out of 36 geographical areas with tropical, sub-tropical, and warm temperate coasts worldwide, only South India, Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and the north-western Atlantic region with a warm temperature have been tagged as critically endangered by the IUCN.

T.N. Forest Dept. has formed 20 village panels to protect mangrove cover'

Tamil Nadu’s Initiatives

  • Increase in Mangrove Coverage: According to the Indian State of Forest Report, the mangrove area in Tamil Nadu has doubled from 23 sq.km. in 2001 to 45 sq.km. in 2021.
  • Community Involvement: The Tamil Nadu Forest Department has established 20 village mangrove committees to help protect mangrove cover.
  • Government Efforts: The State government is acknowledging the role of local communities in mangrove conservation and ensuring their scientific management.
  • Importance of Mangroves: Mangrove ecosystems are crucial for biodiversity conservation, providing essential goods and services to local communities, and mitigating climate change.
  • Additional Threats: Apart from climate change, mangroves face additional threats from sea-level rise and the increasing frequency and severity of cyclonic storms.

Archaeologists, Sanskrit scholars tie up to decipher Rigveda text

News Context

  • Collaboration with Scholars: A group of archaeologists is now working with Sanskrit scholars to decipher the text of the Rigveda.
  • Purpose: The research aims to explore the potential relationship between the Harappan civilization and the Vedic people.
  • Key Locations: Understanding the Rigveda texts is crucial to correlate archaeological evidence found in excavations at sites such as Rakhigarhi and Banawali in Haryana, Kalibanga on the Haryana-Rajasthan border, and Dholavira in Gujarat.

Government plans law on protection of Indian manuscripts - The Hindu

More Research Needed

  • Indigenous Harappans: The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has added in its textbook that the Harappans were indigenous people based on DNA evidence, though more research is necessary.
  • Evidence of Rituals: During excavations at Rakhigarhi, evidence of ritual platforms and fire altars was found, mirroring fire worship mentioned in Rigvedic texts.
  • Debate on Vedas: There is a debate among historians about the period of origin of the Vedas. One group suggests the Vedas originated between 2,000 and 1,500 BC, while another group believes they date back to 2,500 BC or 4,500 years ago.
  • Genetic Evidence: DNA analysis of samples from the Rakhigarhi site found genetic similarities between 3,000 modern South Asians from various linguistic and religious backgrounds and the Harappan woman’s skeleton.

A Common Thread in Texts

  • Reference to Saraswati River: The Rigvedic texts often describe the Saraswati River, mentioning it at least 71 times.
  • Archaeological Evidence: A majority of Harappan settlements were found along the banks of the Saraswati River.
  • Distribution of Settlements: Of the nearly 2,000 known Harappan settlements across the Indus Basin and Gujarat, approximately two-thirds, or at least 1,200, are situated along the Saraswati River basin.
  • Potential Link: A set of animal bones found and studied in the Surkotada region of Kutch, Gujarat, may provide further connections between the Harappans and Vedic times.

What grade of coal does India produce?

The Story So Far

  • Report Release: A report released by the Organized Crime and Corruption Reporting Project (OCCRP), backed by billionaire hedge fund manager and philanthropist George Soros, alleges that in 2014, the Adani Group misrepresented coal quality and inflated its value.
  • Allegations Against Adani Group: The report claims that the Adani Group imported ‘low-grade’ coal from Indonesia, labeled it as ‘high-quality’ coal, and sold it to Tamil Nadu’s power generation company, TANGEDCO.

Which State in India has the Largest Coal Reserve? - Answers

What is ‘High Grade’ and ‘Low Grade’ Coal?

  • Coal Gradation by GCV: The Gross Calorific Value (GCV) determines coal’s grade, which is the amount of heat or energy generated when burned.
  • Quality Scale: Coal quality varies, with grade 1 or top-quality coal yielding more than 7,000 kcal per kilogram, and grade 17 producing between 2,200-2,500 kcal per kilogram.

Usage Differences:

  • Coking Coal: Required for producing coke, a crucial steel-making component with minimal ash content.
  • Non-Coking Coal: Despite its ash content, it can be used for running boilers and turbines.

Characteristics of Indian Coal

  • Calorific Value and Ash Content: Indian coal is characterized by a high ash content and low calorific value compared to imported coal.
  • Calorific Value: The average GCV of domestic thermal coal ranges from 3,500-4,000 kcal/kg, compared to imported thermal coals which average +6,000 kcal/kg.
  • Ash Content: Indian coal has an average ash content of over 40%, while imported coal generally contains less than 10%.
  • Environmental Impact: High-ash coal, when burned, contributes to higher particulate matter, nitrogen, and sulfur dioxide emissions.

Control of the Imports

  • Government Intervention: Since 1954, the government has controlled the pricing of coal, disincentivizing the use of high-grade coking coal for power generation.
  • Use of Imported Coal: To balance the needs of coal production, power generation, and pollution control, the government has recommended the use of imported coal.
  • Blending Recommendations: In 2012, the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) suggested that a 10-15% blend of imported coal could safely be used in Indian power boilers.

Clean Coal

  • Enhanced Carbon Content: Clean coal is achieved when the carbon content is increased by reducing its ash and moisture content.
  • Washing Plants: Coal plants have ‘washing plants’ on-site to process the coal, reducing ash and moisture content.
  • Coal Gasification: This method involves converting coal into gas, bypassing direct burning. The resulting syngas, a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, CO2, and water vapor, is then cleaned and burned in a gas turbine to generate electricity.

What is the Future of Coal in India?

  • Coal Production: In 2023-24, India produced 997 million tonnes of coal, an 11% increase over the previous year. Most of this is produced by the state-owned Coal India Ltd.
  • Energy Economy: Despite commitments to transition towards renewable energy, coal remains the cornerstone of India’s energy economy.
  • Power Capacity Share: In the first quarter of this year, the share of coal (including lignite) in total power capacity dropped below 50% for the first time since the 1960s.

Is a future Palestine state possible?

Is a Future Palestine State Possible?

The Story So Far

  • Hamas’s October 7, 2023 Attacks: The Hamas attacks in Israel and the ongoing Israeli war on Gaza have brought renewed attention to the Palestine question in West Asia.
  • Impact on Gaza: The war has resulted in significant destruction of Gaza and the deaths of approximately 36,000 people. This has prompted more countries to voice support for a future Palestinian state.
  • International Recognition: Recently, Spain, Ireland, and Norway have recognized the state of Palestine.
  • Regional Perspectives: Arab countries, including Saudi Arabia and Jordan, emphasize that there can be no lasting peace in the region unless the Palestine question is resolved.

What’s the Two-State Solution?

  • Division of Historical Palestine: The idea is to divide historical Palestine, which lies between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea, into two states—a Jewish state (Israel) and an Arab state (Palestine).
  • Israeli Occupation: Israel was established as a Jewish state in Palestine in 1948, but the Palestinian territories have been under Israeli occupation since 1967.
  • Creation of Palestine: A two-state solution involves the establishment of a legitimate, sovereign Palestinian state, enjoying full rights under the UN Charter, alongside the State of Israel.

Origin of the Issue

  • 1930s British Rule: The roots of the two-state solution trace back to the 1930s when the British governed Palestine.
  • Lord William Robert Peel’s Commission: In 1936, the British government appointed Lord William Robert Peel to investigate the cause of Arab-Jewish clashes. The commission proposed a partition of Palestine into Jewish and Arab states, with Jews comprising about 28% of the population.
  • UN Special Commission on Palestine (UNSCOP): After World War II, UNSCOP suggested a partition plan to divide Palestine into three territories—Jewish, Arab, and an international zone (Jerusalem). The Jewish state, with approximately 32% of the population, was to receive 56% of the land as per the UNSCOP plan.

Response to the Plan

  • UN General Assembly Resolution 181: The partition plan was adopted by the UN General Assembly.
  • Rejection by Arabs: The partition plan was rejected by the Arab states and India, while the Zionist leadership of Israeli settlers accepted it.
  • Declaration of Israel: On May 14, 1948, the Zionists unilaterally declared the state of Israel, prompting the first Arab-Israeli war.
  • Territorial Expansion: By 1949, Israel had captured 22% more land than the UN had proposed in the plan.

International Legitimacy

  • 1967 Six-Day War: During the conflict, Israel captured several territories:
  • West Bank and East Jerusalem from Jordan
  • Gaza Strip and Sinai Peninsula from Egypt
  • Golan Heights from Syria
  • Israel retained control over these areas except for the Sinai Peninsula, which was returned to Egypt following the 1978 Camp David Accords.
  • Palestine Nationalism: In the 1960s, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) emerged as a strong nationalist movement. Initially, the PLO sought to “liberate” the entirety of Palestine but later accepted the idea of a two-state solution based on the 1967 borders.
  • Israeli Rejection and Recognition: Initially, Israel rejected any Palestinian claims to the land and considered the PLO a terrorist organization. However, in the Camp David Accords following the 1973 Yom Kippur War, Israel accepted the Framework for Peace in the Middle East, marking a shift in attitude towards Palestinian claims.

The Framework

  • Self-Governing Authority: Israel agreed to establish an autonomous Palestinian authority in the West Bank and Gaza Strip and to implement UN Resolution 242, which demands Israel withdraw from the territories it captured in 1967.
  • Foundation for Oslo Accords: The Framework laid the groundwork for the Oslo Accords, signed in 1993 and 1995, which formalized the two-state solution.
  • Palestinian National Authority: Under the Oslo process, a Palestinian National Authority was established in the West Bank and Gaza Strip. The PLO was recognized internationally as the representative body of the Palestinians.
  • Promise Not Fulfilled: The promise of creating a sovereign Palestinian state that would coexist with Israel in peace has not materialized.

Hurdles in Achieving the Two-State Solution

  • Assassination of Yitzhak Rabin: The assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Yitzhak Rabin in 1995 by a Jewish extremist marked the first setback for the Oslo process.
  • Rise of Hamas: The emergence of Hamas, a militant Islamist group, has opposed the Oslo Accords and contributed to derailing the peace process.
  • Settlements: Roughly 700,000 Jewish settlers live in the West Bank and East Jerusalem, complicating the implementation of the agreement.
  • Jerusalem: Palestinians seek East Jerusalem, which houses Al Aqsa, Islam’s third holiest mosque, as the capital of their future state. Israel maintains that all of Jerusalem, which houses the Western Wall (the holiest place in Judaism), is its eternal capital.
  • Refugees: Israel refuses to allow Palestinian refugees, who have a right to return to their homes, back into Israel.
  • Structural Factors: In addition to these issues, Israel’s right-wing leadership shows no willingness to make any concessions.

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

1 / 4

Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 4

Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 25%

0%