Live/Online Class Prelims 2024- Answer Key with Solutions

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 27 June 2024

The Evolving Role of the Global South in the Global Economy

Subject: GS:II : International Relations

Context: The role of the Global South in the global economy is changing, and for these countries to boost their growth, they need improved financial support, digital infrastructure, and climate financing, highlighting the need for reforms in the global financial system.

About the Global South:

The Global South refers to countries often described as ‘developing’, ‘less developed’, or ‘underdeveloped’. First coined by Carl Oglesby in 1969, the term gained prominence after the Soviet Union’s collapse in 1991. Despite the geographical misnomer, as countries like China and India lie in the Northern Hemisphere, the term denotes shared political, geopolitical, and economic characteristics.

  • Regional Spread: Predominantly in the Southern Hemisphere, including Africa, Asia, and Latin America.

Characteristics of Global South Countries:

  • High poverty levels and income inequality.
  • Lower life expectancy and challenging living conditions.

Variations within the Global South:

  • Population: Four out of the five most populous countries are in Asia, including China and India.
  • Economic Growth: Asian economies, particularly in East Asia, have experienced rapid growth.
  • Income Levels: Latin American countries, except Venezuela, are generally upper-middle or high-income, whereas many African nations are poorer, with seven having per capita incomes below $1,000.
  • Conflict: Countries like Ethiopia, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Sudan have faced prolonged civil conflicts.

About the Global North:

The Global North consists of wealthier nations primarily in North America and Europe, with some in Oceania. This includes the US, Canada, Europe, Russia, Australia, and New Zealand.

Cold War Metrics Classification:

  • First World: Advanced capitalist nations (e.g., USA, UK, France, Germany).
  • Second World: Socialist nations led by the Soviet Union (e.g., USSR, China, Cuba).
  • Third World: Developing nations, often still under colonial influence (e.g., India, Indonesia).

 

World Systems Approach:

Introduced by sociologist Immanuel Wallerstein in 1974, this approach categorizes production zones into core, peripheral, and semi-peripheral:

  • Core Zones: Advanced technologies (e.g., US, Japan).
  • Peripheral Zones: Less sophisticated, labor-intensive production.
  • Semi-Peripheral Zones: Countries like India and Brazil, which sometimes exploit and are sometimes exploited.

The Brandt Line:

Proposed by Willy Brandt in the 1980s, it is an imaginary line dividing richer Northern Hemisphere countries from poorer Southern Hemisphere countries, illustrating the socio-economic divide.

 

Recent Economic Forecasts about the Global South:

  • Growth and Development: The World Bank/IMF forecasts show the Global South’s growth holding steady at around 3%, the lowest in decades.
  • Regional Achievements: Middle- and low-income countries, especially in Asia, are expected to contribute nearly three-fourths of global growth in the next few decades.
  • Reasons for Growth: Supportive geopolitics, demographics, globalization, and technological advances have driven high growth periods.

 

Impact of Recent Global Events on the Global South:

  • Globalization and Social Safety Nets: Inadequate safety nets have affected social cohesion.
  • Pandemic Impact: COVID-19 disrupted markets, trade, and supply chains.
  • Geopolitical Concerns: The war in Ukraine and strategic competition threaten global cooperation and economic stability.

 

India’s Initiatives for the Global South:

  • New Delhi Declaration: Collaborative efforts for a more prosperous and sustainable world.
  • Non-Aligned Movement (NAM): Advocacy for Global South interests.
  • South-South Cooperation: Bilateral agreements focusing on trade, technology transfer, and capacity-building.
  • BRICS: Advocacy for a more equitable global order.
  • Group of 77 (G77): Addressing economic and developmental challenges.
  • Climate Change Negotiations: Advocating for “common but differentiated responsibilities.”
  • World Trade Organization (WTO) and Trade Issues: Emphasis on addressing trade imbalances.
  • Peacekeeping Operations: Significant contributions to UN missions.
  • Voice of Global South Summit: Initiatives like the Global South Centre of Excellence and the Global South Science and Technology Initiative.

 

Significance of the Global South:

  • Economic and Political Power Shift: By 2030, three of the four largest economies will be from the Global South. The combined GDP of BRICS nations already surpasses the G7.
  • Geopolitical Impact: Increased participation in international institutions and organizations like IMF, WTO, and UN agencies.

Challenges Faced by the Global South:

  • Vulnerability to Global Headwinds: Climate change, cost of living crises, unattainable Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), declining productivity, lack of liquidity financing, and broken debt structures.
  • Financial Challenges: Shallow financial markets and an inadequate international financial system.
  • Technological Disparities: The need for better digital public infrastructure.
  • Resource Access: Significant gaps in resource access for development.
  • Geopolitical Interference: Concerns over China’s Belt and Road Initiative and US hegemony.

 

Way Forward:

  • Technological Advancements: Utilizing innovations like AI to drive growth and inclusion.
  • Common Repository: Establishing a center for DPI architecture and data security.
  • Climate Financing: Leveraging public and multilateral resources to focus on capital markets.
  • Liquidity Provisions: Strengthening and reforming the IMF to address liquidity issues and support development.

 

The resurgence of the Global South reflects its evolving geopolitical role and growing influence in global affairs. India’s leadership in championing the interests of the Global South underscores this transition, advocating for a recalibrated global economic and political order.

 

Patna High Court Nullifies 65% Quota in Bihar

Subject: GS II: Polity and Governance

 

Context: The Patna High Court recently overturned amendments by the Bihar legislature that aimed to increase reservations for Backward Classes (BC), Extremely Backward Classes (EBC), Scheduled Castes (SC), and Scheduled Tribes (ST) from 50% to 65% in educational institutions and government jobs.

 

Background:

Bihar Government’s Decision: Following a caste-based survey, Chief Minister Nitish Kumar’s government decided to increase reservations due to inadequate representation of these classes, but the reservation was not proportionate. Including a 10% quota for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), the total reservation was set to reach 75%, exceeding the Supreme Court’s 50% ceiling.

Public Interest Litigation: A PIL was filed challenging the state’s decision to increase reservations from 50% to 65%.

 

Caste-Based Census:

  • Details: Bihar released its 2022 Caste Survey Report, providing demographic data on caste.
  • Historical Context: Indian censuses since 1951 have included data on SCs and STs, but not on OBCs, who make up about 52% of the population.
  • Demand for Data: There is a growing demand for detailed data on the OBC population to aid in policy-making and welfare delivery.

 

Patna High Court’s Opinion:

  • Purpose of Reservation: Designed to dismantle dominance by certain groups and uplift backward classes.
  • Merit Consideration: Social inequities must be addressed without disregarding merit.
  • Amendments Violate Equality: The court found the amendments beyond constitutional powers, violating Articles 14, 15, and 16.

50% Ceiling: Established by the Supreme Court in 1992 to ensure administrative efficiency.

Precedents:

  • First: Criteria for reservation should be “social and educational backwardness.”
  • Second: Reaffirmed the 50% limit on vertical quotas.
  • Exception Clause: The 50% limit can be exceeded only in “exceptional circumstances.”
  • Political Attempts and Litigation: States frequently attempt to exceed the 50% limit, leading to judicial reviews and legal challenges. The 50% ceiling is currently contested before the Supreme Court, though laws exceeding this limit are typically struck down.

 

Supreme Court’s EWS Verdict (November 2022):

  • EWS Quota: Upheld in a 3-2 decision, distinguishing it from SC/ST and OBC quotas, as a separate category outside the ‘backwardness’ framework.
  • Majority Opinion: The ceiling is not inflexible, raising questions about the potential reopening of the Indra Sawhney verdict.
  • Minority Opinion: Warned that breaching the 50% rule could lead to further violations and compartmentalization of reservations.

 

Arguments for and Against the 50% Ceiling:

  • Equality Principle: Exceeding 50% contradicts equality.
  • Reservations as Exceptions: Should ensure equality, not become the norm.
  • Arbitrary Limit: The 50% ceiling is seen as arbitrary and restrictive.
  • Reservations as Fundamental Rights: Viewed as integral to equality and part of the Constitution’s basic structure.
  • Judicial Perspective: The 2022 ruling emphasized that reservations support merit distribution.

Reservation in Other States:

  • Tamil Nadu: Exceeded the 50% limit, protected by the Ninth Schedule.
  • Maharashtra: The SC struck down a law exceeding 50% for the Maratha community.

Formal vs. Substantive Equality:

  • Formal Equality: Equal treatment under the law, without regard to individual circumstances.
  • Substantive Equality: Addresses actual conditions and opportunities, aiming for equitable outcomes by considering varying needs and disadvantages.

 

The Supreme Court will revisit the Indra Sawhney case, focusing on substantive equality. This reassessment could lead to significant changes in reservation policies, incorporating insights from over three decades of legal decisions since the Mandal Commission report.

International Yoga Day

Subject: GS I: Art & Culture

 

Context: The Indian Prime Minister is overseeing the 10th annual International Yoga Day festivities in Srinagar on June 21.

 

About  International Yoga Day:

    • Definition: As per the United Nations, the term ‘yoga’ comes from Sanskrit and signifies joining or uniting, reflecting the union of body and consciousness.
    • Global Observation: June 21 is celebrated globally as International Yoga Day.
    • 2024 Theme: “Yoga for Self and Society.”
  • Historical Background:
  • UN Declaration: On December 11, 2014, the UN General Assembly declared June 21 as International Day of Yoga.
  • Inaugural Celebrations: The first event was held in 2015 at Rajpath, New Delhi, achieving two Guinness World Records for the largest yoga class (35,985 participants) and the highest number of participating nationalities (84).
  • Importance:
  • Promotes global awareness of yoga’s benefits for physical and mental health.
  • Encourages individuals from diverse backgrounds to explore yoga’s transformative potential.

 

Understanding Yoga:

  • Origins: An ancient practice encompassing physical, mental, and spiritual disciplines, originating in India.
  • Philosophical Foundations: Rooted in the Six Doctrines of Salvation in Hinduism, with Yoga paired with Sankhya. Other pairs include Nyaya and Vaishesika, and Mimosa and Vedanta.
  • Philosophy of Yoga: Encompasses various religious practices and self-discipline, with practitioners known as Yogis. Early yogic schools focused on psychic training for salvation, inspired by Patanjali’s Yoga Sutras.
  • Evolution in the Medieval Period: Tantric schools adopted and advanced yoga techniques, enhancing their complexity and exclusivity.

 

Role and Benefits:

  • Path to Self-Realization: Yoga is a journey to discover oneness with oneself, the world, and nature.
  • Support from WHO: The World Health Organization (WHO) encourages yoga practice, including it in its Global Action Plan for physical activity 2018-30.
  • Health and Well-being: Yoga is widely practiced globally, enhancing physical fitness, reducing stress and anxiety, improving well-being, and enhancing sleep quality. It fosters a balanced approach to daily life and skillful action.

 

India’s Initiatives for Promoting Yoga:

  • M-Yoga App
  • Dedicated Website for International Day of Yoga (IDY)
  • Vocational Education Courses in Yoga
  • Fit India Movement
  • Common Yoga Protocol

 

Details on Common Yoga Protocol:

The Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) lists key yoga practices in its ‘Common Yoga Protocol,’ including Yama, Niyama, Āsana, Prāṇāyāma, Pratyāhāra, Dhāraṇā, Dhyāna, Samādhi, Bandhās and Mudrās, Ṣaṭkarmas, Yuktāhāra, Mantra-japa, Yukta-karma.

 

Symbolism of the Logo:

  • Joined Hands: Represents the union of individual consciousness with universal consciousness, symbolizing harmony between mind and body, man and nature, and a holistic health approach.
  • Other Elements: Brown leaves represent the earth element, green leaves symbolize nature, blue signifies the fire element, and the sun represents energy and inspiration.

 

Earthquake 2,500 Years Ago Potentially Altered Ganga’s Course

Subject: GS I: Geography

 

Context: A study published in Nature Communications suggests that an earthquake around 2,500 years ago may have caused the Ganga river to drastically change its course.

 

Key Findings:

  • Course Alteration: This research marks the “first confirmed instance” of an earthquake driving an avulsion in a major river delta.
  • Avulsions: These are sudden changes in the course of a river.
  • Satellite Evidence: Satellite images revealed the Ganga’s former main channel about 100 kilometers south of Dhaka, Bangladesh, in a low-lying area 1.5 kilometers wide, stretching intermittently for 100 kilometers parallel to the current river course.

 

Seismites:

    • Definition: Seismites refer to deformed sediments caused by earthquakes.
    • Discovery: Researchers identified seismites in the region in 2018, confirming the earthquake’s role in altering the river’s path.
  • Possible Sources of the Earthquake:
  • Subduction Zone: To the south and east, where oceanic crust is pushing under Bangladesh, Myanmar, and northeastern India.
  • Himalayan Faults: To the north, where the Indian subcontinent is colliding with Asia, causing the Himalayas to rise.
  • Potential for Another Event: A 2016 study indicated a similar magnitude earthquake could strike again, potentially affecting 140 million people.

 

Understanding Earthquakes:

  • Definition: Earthquakes are natural events where energy release causes shaking.
  • Mechanism: Energy is released along a fault, a sharp break in the crustal rocks, where opposing movements occur.
  • Energy Release: When friction holding rocks together is overcome, they move abruptly, releasing energy that travels as waves.
  • Key Terms:
  • Focus/Hypocentre: The origin point of the earthquake within the earth.
  • Epicentre: The point on the earth’s surface directly above the focus, first to feel the waves.
  • Impact of Large Earthquakes: Economic, Social, and Political Effects: Earthquakes can cause widespread and long-lasting impacts.
  • Immediate Consequences:
  • Flooding: Abrupt river course changes can lead to flooding, causing extensive damage and loss of life.
  • Emergency Response: A significant need for resources and coordination for disaster relief.

 

Economic Impact:

  • Agriculture: Disruption in irrigation could lead to crop failures and loss of livelihood.
  • Infrastructure Damage: Existing infrastructure may become obsolete or require modifications due to flooding.

Environmental Impact:

  • Ecosystem Disruption: Changes in the river course can destroy habitats and threaten species.
  • Water Quality: Potential for pollutants to enter the new river course.

Social Impact:

  • Displacement: Sudden changes could displace large populations.
  • Health: Altered water availability and quality could impact public health, especially in regions with scarce clean water.

Geopolitical Impact:

  • Interstate Relations: Changes in the Ganga’s course could lead to conflicts over water rights among the states it flows through.

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

1 / 4

Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 4

Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 25%

0%