Live/Online Class Prelims 2024- Answer Key with Solutions

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS: 24 June 2024

Heat-baked Chennai can set an example for India

News Context

  • Record-Breaking Heat in 2023: The year 2023 was recorded as the hottest ever by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
  • Temperature Surge: Global average temperatures rose to 1.45°C above pre-industrial levels, nearing the 1.5°C limit set by the Paris Agreement.
  • Growing Climate Impacts: With global emissions still on the rise, climate effects are intensifying. Scientists predict that 2024 may experience similar conditions.

The Reality of the Urban Heat Island (UHI)

  • Higher Urban Temperatures: In large, densely populated urban areas, temperatures can be significantly higher than in surrounding rural regions, with nights being especially warmer.
  • Heat Retention: Concrete structures and tarmac roads retain heat, which remains trapped in urban areas along with air pollutants.
  • Contributing Factors: The absence of green spaces and waste heat from air conditioners and other machinery exacerbate the Urban Heat Island effect.
  • Heatwave Criteria in India: In India, a heatwave is officially declared in coastal areas when maximum temperatures exceed 37°C and are 4.5°C above normal.

Heat Action Plans

  • Comprehensive Plans: India has implemented national, state, and some district-level Heat Action Plans (HAP) to mitigate morbidity and mortality, particularly among vulnerable populations such as the poor, infants, and the elderly.
  • NDMA Guidelines: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) provides guidelines for addressing heatwaves, including early warning systems and measures such as staggered work hours and shaded areas at outdoor construction sites.
  • Long-term Strategies: Beyond immediate responses to heatwaves, there is a need for long-term strategies to address the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect and reduce urban heat.
  • Chennai Climate Action Plan: The Chennai Climate Action Plan (CCAP) offers several significant recommendations for addressing heat, though these are spread across different sections.

Study and Findings

  • Increasing Green Cover: Urban forests, parks, and tree-lined areas release moisture, which evaporates and cools the surroundings.
  • Local Microclimate Benefits: Well-distributed green areas can influence the local micro-climate, reduce air pollution, and promote health and well-being.
  • Shaded Pathways: Tree-lined walkways and tracks provide shade for pedestrians, cyclists, and itinerant workers, encouraging non-motorized transportation.
  • UN Habitat Recommendations: Sustainable urban development guidelines by UN Habitat recommend that green spaces be accessible within 400 meters of all residences.
  • Urban Greening Initiatives: Efforts to increase greenery in urban areas, such as the creation of “miyawaki forests,” show promise, though there are concerns about the species of trees being planted.

On the Use of Air-Conditioners and Energy Saving

  • Waste Heat from Air-Conditioning: A lesser-known contributor to the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect is the waste heat emitted by air-conditioning units.
  • High Energy Consumption: In Chennai and other Indian metropolitan areas, approximately 50% of electricity consumption during summer is used for air-conditioning, which releases heat outdoors.
  • Energy-Efficient Air-Conditioning: Transitioning to more energy-efficient air-conditioning systems, including mandates for purchasing five-star or split EE air-conditioners and incentives for replacing old units with new EE models, could reduce UHI by up to 1.5°C.
  • Successful Examples: Cities like Shanghai and Seoul have reported significant reductions in UHI by implementing these strategies.

Way Forward

  • Awareness and Savings: Increasing awareness about climate change is important, but the potential to save about 25% on electricity bills can also drive change.
  • Better Building Practices: Buildings that are well-insulated, ventilated, and constructed using green building codes require less air-conditioning and produce less waste heat.
  • Urban Infrastructure Improvements: Implementing permeable paving, adding shrubbery along sidewalks and dividers, and using reflective paint on roofs, walls, and streets can help reduce urban heat.
  • Public Transport Over Personal Vehicles: Reducing the number of personal vehicles through the expansion of efficient public transportation, particularly electric buses, would significantly contribute to lowering urban temperatures.

Railways to construct canopy bridges across track in Assam gibbon habitat

Hoolock Gibbons and Conservation

  • Railway Initiative for Conservation: The Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) has allocated funds to build canopy bridges to help Hoolock gibbons, India’s only ape, safely cross a railway track in eastern Assam.
  • Track Expansion: A 1.65-km-long railway track, which is being doubled and electrified, bisects the 2,098.62-hectare Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Jorhat district.

Hoolock Gibbons – IUCN Status: Endangered

  • Significant Population: The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary hosts the largest population of Hoolock gibbons, one of the 20 ape species globally.
  • Habitat Preferences: Hoolock gibbons, known for their vocalizations, primarily inhabit the upper canopy of tall trees, especially the hollong (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus).

Canopy Bridges

  • Forest Fragmentation Impact: The railway track has fragmented the forest, disrupting the gibbons’ arboreal lifestyle and endangering them when crossing the track.
  • Bridge Design: Canopy bridges, designed by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in collaboration with NFR, will be placed at strategic points to aid the gibbons’ movement.
  • Safety Measures: Safety nets will be installed beneath the main twin-rope bridges as a precaution to catch any gibbons that might fall.
  • Natural Integration: The canopy bridges will be set up to allow lianas and creepers to grow on them, making the bridges appear as natural extensions of the forest canopy.

April core sector output rises 6.2% as electricity, steel buoy

India’s Infrastructure (Core Sector) Output in April

  • Overall Growth: Infrastructure output in India rose by 6.2% year-on-year in April, up from a revised 6% growth in March, driven by strong performance in electricity and steel sectors.
  • Sector Contribution: Infrastructure output, which makes up 40% of industrial production, tracks activity in eight sectors including refinery products and electricity.

Sector-Specific Performance

  • Coal: Production increased by 7.5%.
  • Electricity: Generation surged by 9.4%.
  • Steel: Production grew by 7.1%.
  • Natural Gas: Output increased by 8.6%.
  • Cement: Production saw a modest rise of 0.6%.
  • Crude Oil: Production went up by 1.6%.
  • Refinery Products: Output grew by 3.9%, compared to a previous increase of 1.5%.
  • Fertilizers: The only sector to experience a decline, with production falling by 0.8% in April.

Splash back

News Context

  • Successful Test Flight: A start-up named Agnikul Cosmos successfully conducted the first test flight of its rocket ‘Agnibaan’ in a mission named ‘Suborbital Tech Demonstrator’ (SOrTeD).
  • Previous Attempts: This flight was Agnikul’s fifth attempt after the first four were called off due to suboptimal launch conditions.

Agnibaan – An Overview

  • Launch Vehicle Design: ‘Agnibaan’ is a two-stage, 14-tonne launch vehicle designed to lift small satellites to low-Earth orbits, with both stages powered by custom semi-cryogenic engines.
  • Market Impact: Its success will enhance India’s commercial launch services, aligning with the growing market for small satellites and the services they provide.
  • Current Roster: The current launch services market is dominated by ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and will soon include the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).

Way in Advancements and Forefront

  • Communication Challenge: Agnikul needs to improve the communication of its test flight parameters.
  • Startups Leading Innovation: These startups are now in a position to lead and inspire ISRO and others, potentially speeding up advancements in the sector.
  • Example: ISRO is testing its own semi-cryogenic engine and could benefit from the experiences and lessons learned by Agnikul.
  • Technological Developments: ISRO has developed engine nozzles made from a carbon-carbon composite to replace the Columbium alloy nozzles on the PSLV’s fourth stage.
  • Supportive Frameworks: The government must ensure that the bureaucratic and legal frameworks support the free exchange of knowledge.

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 4 April 2024

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1.  NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. ANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
  2. The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1.The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2.”Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 3 APRIL 2024

Factor cost of a good, MedTech Mitra portal, tigers in India, Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary, Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. In renewable energy storage installations, India ranks as the fifth-largest country globally.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) operate on the principle of transmitting electricity directly across extended distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2.Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary is located at

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements about tigers in India:
1.With a minimum count of 3,167 tigers, India hosts over 70% of the worldwide wild tiger population.
2.In the present year, nine tiger reserves obtained CA|TS accreditation.
3.India’s wild tiger population is experiencing a strong annual growth rate of 16%.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements about MedTech Mitra portal
1.The online portal is designed to support medtech innovators by providing assistance in clinical evaluation, regulatory facilitation, and the adoption of new products.
2.A collaborative effort between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Ayush, the portal operates under the guidance of NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission.

Choose the correct statements:

5 / 5

Q.5. The Factor cost of a good include(s) which of the following?
1. Payments for raw materials.
2. Wages to labour for production.
3. Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 2 APRIL 2024

Human Poverty Index, Migrants, Human Development Report (HDR), population growth in India, factors influence the location of Urban Settlements

1 / 5

Q. 1. While calculating the Human Poverty Index, Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account?
1. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements:
1. A migrant is both an immigrant and an emigrant at the same time.
2. Migrants who move into a new place are called emigrants while migrants who move out of a place are called immigrants.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements:
1. Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Human Development Report Office releases the Gender Inequality Index.
3. The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With respect to population growth in India , consider the following statements:
1. Phase 1 (1901-1920) is characterized as a stagnant or stationary phase
2. In the period of steady population growth, the crude birth rate remained high.
3. Increased international migration, involving Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalese, and individuals from Pakistan, played a role in the elevated growth rate in phase 3 of population growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. Which of the following factors influence the location of Urban Settlements?
1. Proximity to trade routes
2. Natural Defence
3. Raw material and local energy supplies
4. Valuable minerals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 1 April 2024

1 / 5

Q.1. What is the significance behind commemorating March 14 as the International Day of Mathematics?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements
1. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) function as substances that contribute to ozone depletion (ODS) and act as potent greenhouse gases simultaneously.
2. The Kigali Amendment, an extension of the Montreal Protocol, targets an 80% reduction in the consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by the year 2047.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following best describes a ballistic missile?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 30 MARCH 2024

Ninth Schedule, Coalition Governments, lawsuits by or against the government, responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India, International Customary Law

1 / 5

Q.1. The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution while the Prime Minister in office was.

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition Governments:
1. The Janta Party established the inaugural coalition government at the national level in India in 1977.
2. For a group to be designated as a coalition, it necessitates the participation of a minimum of three political parties.
3. A coalition government consistently operates in accordance with a shared minimal agenda or program.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the lawsuits by or against the government, consider the following statements:
1. When initiating legal proceedings against the central government, it is appropriate to use the term ‘Government of India’ as the reference.
2. An entity has the option to institute a legal action against the government for violating contractual obligations.
3. In India, the government can face legal action for civil misconduct committed by its officials in the course of carrying out non-sovereign duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. What are the responsibilities and obligations of the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India?
1. He guarantees the setup of election facilities and conducts demonstrations of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each district.
2. He assesses the state’s law and order conditions during the electoral process.
3. He assigns symbols to candidates participating in the elections.
4. He examines the nomination forms submitted by candidates running for office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to ‘International Customary Law’, consider the following statements:
1.International Customary Law is established based on widely accepted practices that function as legal norms in different nations.
2.These regulations lack the force of binding legal rules since they are not underpinned by international agreements or treaties.
3.The Indian judicial and legal system does not acknowledge the legitimacy of this legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 13%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 29 MARCH 2024

Cholederm, aspartame, tobacco cultivation

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to tobacco cultivation, consider the following statements:

1.Nicotiana tabacum and N. rustica are the two varieties commonly cultivated for producing commercial tobacco.
2. N. rustica is widely cultivated in most countries of the world, while N. tabacum is restricted to India, Russia, and a few other Asiatic countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Concerning the top producers of tobacco in India, consider the following statements:
1.Gujarat has the highest production and productivity of tobacco in India.
2.Andhra Pradesh follows Gujarat in tobacco production in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to aspartame, consider the following statements:

1.The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorizes aspartame as “possibly carcinogenic” to humans.
2.Aspartame is about 200 times sweeter than table sugar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the chemical composition of aspartame, consider the following statements:
1.Aspartame consists of three amino acids – L-aspartic acid, L-phenylalanine, and L-methionine.
2.Aspartic acid is produced naturally by your body, and phenylalanine is an essential
amino acid that is intaken from food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. What is Cholederm?

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 28 MARCH 2024

Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), Chip 4 Initiative, objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, 

1 / 5

Q.1.With reference to the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. GANHRI’s supreme deliberative body is the General Assembly.
2. The Bureau, the GANHRI executive committee, is comprised of 16 members, with 4 from each of GANHRI’s regional networks of Africa, Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Regarding the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), consider the following statements:
1. NHRC’s lack of diversity was addressed through an amendment to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019.
2. GANHRI is responsible for reviewing and accrediting National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) in compliance with the Paris Principles every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The Chip 4 Initiative aims to increase chip exports to China.
2. It is also known as the “Fab 4” initiative and includes the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. Regarding the objectives of the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:

1.One of the objectives is to support industry efforts to concentrate their manufacturing base in China.
2.The initiative aims to develop policies related to the export of the most advanced semiconductors and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Chip 4 Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative includes the world’s top semiconductor-producing countries.
2. “Fab” in the “Fab 4” initiative refers to the fabrication plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 60%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 27 MARCH 2024

VRRR auctions, Reverse Repo, Repo Rate, N. rustica, N. tabacum, Tobacco cultivation in India, Tobacco Board

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements:
1. The VRRR auction is a monetary policy tool aimed at injecting liquidity into the banking system.
2. Reverse Repo refers to the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
3. Repo Rate is utilized by monetary authorities to regulate inflation by controlling the money supply.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

2 / 5

Q.2. Considering Reverse Repo and its functions, evaluate the following statements:
1. Reverse Repo is a tool to control the money supply within the country.
2. It involves the RBI paying interest to commercial banks for excess cash reserves held with the central bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 / 5

Q.3. With reference to Tobacco Cultivation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. N. rustica is extensively cultivated in various countries across the globe for commercial tobacco production.
2. The highest production and productivity of N. tabacum in India occur in the state of Gujarat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements

  1.  Tobacco cultivation in India was initiated by British colonialists in the 18th century.
  2.  Tobacco cultivation requires a high amount of rainfall, preferably exceeding 1500 mm during the season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Tobacco Board, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tobacco Board operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. Its headquarters are situated in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ – 26 MARCH 2024

English success over French, Ramakrishna Parmahamsa, Ramabai Ranade, Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM), Vitamin D

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements with respect to Vitamin D:
1. Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that dissolves in fat.
2. Consuming too much Vitamin D can result in the condition known as Hypercalcemia.
3. The recommended daily intake of vitamin D for humans is 10 micrograms.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Financing Agrochemical Reduction and Management Programme (FARM)
1. The objective is to prevent the release of harmful persistent organic pollutants into the environment resulting from the utilization of detrimental chemicals in agriculture.
2. The initiative is overseen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) with backing from the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
3. India abstains from participation in this program due to its prohibition on the use of chemical fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following are the causes for the English success over French?
1. The English company operated as a privately owned enterprise, while the French company was under the control and regulation of the French government.
2. The superiority of the English navy over its French counterpart was evident.
3. The English controlled three significant locations—Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras—while the French held only Pondicherry.
4. The French prioritized territorial ambitions over commercial interests, leading to a shortage of funds for the French company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements:

1.Ramakrishna Paramahansa emphasised that the service of man was the service of God.
2.Swami Vivekananda was the disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
3.The Ramakrishna Mission laid emphasis on personal salvation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements regarding Ramabai Ranade:
1.In Bombay, she initiated the establishment of the ‘Hindu Ladies Social and Literary Club.’
2.She played a foundational role as one of the creators of Seva Sadan.
3.The authorship of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’ (or ‘Comparison of Men and Women’) is attributed to her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 23 March 2024

Ebola, UN Security Council, Anchor banks, Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha, Kashmir Hangul

1 / 5

Q.1. Consider the following statements about Kashmir Hangul
1. Exclusive to the Kashmir hills, this species is confined to the boundaries of Dachigam National Park.
2. Identified as critically endangered according to the IUCN Red List.
3. Designated as the official State animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Nomination Procedure in Lok Sabha
1. Any Indian citizen listed as a voter is eligible to nominate themselves for a Lok Sabha seat.
2. The nomination form, accompanied by the specified security deposit, can be submitted to the District Election Officer.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Anchor banks’?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘UN Security Council’:
1. Comprising 5 member states with permanent status and 10 member states with non-permanent status serving terms of 2 years each.
2. The principle of “veto power” within the UN Security Council grants exclusive authority to the Secretary-General to veto resolutions.
3. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) does not hold the authority to approve the admission of new member states to the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
1. The disease is attributed to viruses primarily located in sub-Saharan Africa.
2. At present, there exists no recognized treatment for this ailment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Your score is

The average score is 65%

0%

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ: 22 March 2024

No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind, Sahadran Ayyappan, Islamic Reform Movements, Majeed Brigade, Battle of Okinawa, Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

1 / 5

Q.1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
1. It holds the distinction of being the State Bird of Rajasthan.
2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Choose the correct statement:

2 / 5

Q.2. Consider the following statements about Battle of Okinawa
1. The conflict occurred between American and Japanese troops and is considered the final significant engagement of World War II.
2. The defeat in this battle by Japanese forces played a direct role in shaping the American choice to deploy atomic bombs against Japan.
Choose the incorrect statement:

3 / 5

Q.3. Recently, the ‘Majeed Brigade’ was in the news. Which one of the following best describes it?

4 / 5

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic Reform Movements during 19th century in British India:
1.The Ahmadiya movement embraced a progressive perspective, advocating against practices such as polygamy, the veiling of women, and traditional divorce rules.
2.The Deoband Movement sought to disseminate the unadulterated teachings of the Quran and Hadith among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. The attribution of the statement “No religion, No caste, and No God for mankind” is associated with:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%

STATIC QUIZ – 21 March 2024

Non-Cooperation Movement, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhash Chandra Bose, second world war, Jawahar Lal Nehru

1 / 5

Q.1. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:
1. Indian industrialists were staunchly against the programme of economic boycott.
2. Most of the upper and middle-class Muslims stayed away from the movement.
3. The middle class responded weakly to the call for resignation from the government service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 5

Q.2. Which among the following prevented Gandhi against launching immediate mass struggle during the second world war?
1. He believed that the cause of the British was just against the Nazi forces.
2. Any mass movement could easily transform into communal rioting due to lack of HinduMuslim unity.
3. The congress was not sufficiently organized to lead the masses in a nation-wide struggle against Britishers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 / 5

Q.3. Consider the following statements regarding role of Subash Chandra Bose & Jawahar Lal Nehru during Indian national movement:
1. Both Bose and Nehru expressed disappointment over the sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.
2. Nehru opposed Bose for forming a coalition government in Bengal along with the Krishak Praja Party.
3. Bose and Nehru together organized an AllIndia Anti Compromise Conference against the report of Hunter Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 / 5

Q.4. With reference to the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhi and Bose both endorsed the varna system and caste structure.
2. Bose, in contrast to Gandhi, advocated for extensive industrial development.
3. Gandhi stressed the importance of vocational training, while Bose emphasized technical and scientific education.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

5 / 5

Q.5. With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement, consider the following statements:

Assertion: The withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement was declared in the Ahmedabad resolution by the Congress Working Committee.

Reason: Mahatma Gandhi believed that people had not acquired a complete understanding of the principles of non-violence.

Which of the following statements is correct based upon the options given below?

Your score is

The average score is 33%

0%

Daily Quiz – 20 MAR 2024

Hunter Education Commission, Swarajists, Belgaum Congress Session, untouchability, early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s

1 / 4

Q.1. Consider the following statements with reference to recommendations of Hunter Education Commission formed during British rule in India:
1. Provincial governments to take steps to provide free elementary education to the poor.
2. Secondary education should have two divisions like literary and vocational.
3. A university need to be established in each province of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 / 4

Q.2. Which of the following is/are the reasons behind Gandhi’s reconciliation with the Swarajists?
1. Gandhi was angered by government repression on the Swarajists.
2. Gandhi was convinced by the courageous and uncompromising way of functioning of
Swarajists.
3. Gandhi felt that public opposition of the proposal of council entry by Swarajists would be counter-productive.

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3 / 4

Q.3. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Babasaheb Ambedkar’s struggle against untouchability?
1. He organised Mahad March for the right to draw water from public tanks.
2. He launched a temple entry movement in Nashik.
3. He set up the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha to spread education among the downtrodden.

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4 / 4

Q.4. With reference to the difference between the early revolutionaries of 1900s and revolutionaries of 1920s, consider the following statements:
1. The emergence of early revolutionaries was the result of fallout of the Swadeshi Movement.
2. The emergence of revolutionaries of 1920s was the result of fallout of the NonCooperation movement.
3. The early revolutionaries adopted the path of armed mass struggle whereas the
revolutionaries of 1920s mainly adopted path of individual heroic action against colonial rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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